WBCHSE Solutions For Class 12 Maths Probability

Probability

Conditional Probability And Probability Of Independent Events

In this chapter, we shall be dealing with problems based on conditional probability and probability of independent events.

Conditional Probability

Let A and B be two events associated with the same random experiment. Then, the probability of occurrence of A under the condition B has already occurred and P(B) ^ 0, is called conditional probability, denoted by P(A/B).

We define:

⇒ \(P(A / B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}, \text { where } P(B) \neq 0\)

and \(P(B / A)=\frac{P(B \cap A)}{P(A)}=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}, \text { where } P(A) \neq 0\).

Read and Learn More WBCHSE Solutions For Class 12 Maths

Conditional Probability Solved Examples

Example 1. A die is rolled. If the outcome is an odd number, what is the probability that it is prime?
Solution:

When a die is rolled, the sample space is given by S = { 1,2,3,4, 5,6}.

Let A = event of getting a prime number, and

B = event of getting an odd number.

WBCHSE Solutions For Class 12 Maths Probability

Example 2. Ten cards numbered 1 to 10 are placed in a box, mixed up thoroughly and then one card is drawn randomly. If it is known that the number on the drawn card is more than 3, what is the probability that it is an even number?
Solution:

Clearly, the sample space is S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}.

Let A =event that the number on the drawn card is even, and
B =event that the number on the drawn card is more than 3.

Then A ={2, 4, 6, 8, 10}, B ={4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} and A ∩ B ={4,6, 8, 10}.

∴ P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{5}{10}=\frac{1}{2}\),

P(B)= \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{7}{10}\) and

P(A∩B)= \(\frac{n(A \cap B)}{n(S)}=\frac{4}{10}=\frac{2}{5}\)

Suppose B has already occurred and then A occurs.

So, we have to find P(A/B).

Now, P(A/B) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{(2 / 5)}{(7 / 10)}=\left(\frac{2}{5} \times \frac{10}{7}\right)=\frac{4}{7}\).

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{4}{7}\).

Example 3. A die is thrown twice and the sum of the numbers appearing is observed to be 6. What is the conditional probability that the number 4 has appeared at least once?
Solution:

We know that when a die is thrown twice, then the sample space has 36 possible outcomes.

Let A = event that 4 appears at least once, and
B = event that the sum of the numbers appearing is 6.

Then, A = {(4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4, 5), (4,6), (1,4), (2,4), (3,4), (5,4), (6,4)}

and B = {(1,5), (2,4), (3,3), (4,2), (5,1)}

∴ A∩B = {(2,4), (4,2)}.

So, P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{11}{36}, P(B)=\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{5}{36}\)

P(B) = \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{5}{36}\)

and P(A∩B)= \(\frac{n(A \cap B)}{n(S)}=\frac{2}{36}=\frac{1}{18}\)

Suppose B has already occurred and then A occurs.

So, we have to find P(A/B).

Now, P(A B) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{(1 / 18)}{(5 / 36)}=\left(\frac{1}{18} \times \frac{36}{5}\right)=\frac{2}{5} \text {. }\)

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{2}{5}\)

Example 4. Assume that each born child is equally likely to be a boy or a girl. If a family has two children, what is the conditional probability that both are girls given that

  1. The youngest child is a girl,
  2. At least one of the children is a girl.

Solution:

We may write the sample space as

S = {G1G2, G1B2, B1G2, B1B2}, where the youngest child appears later,

1. Let A = event that both the children are girls and B = event that the youngest child is a girl.

Then, A = {G1G2}, B = {G1G2, B1G2} and A∩B = {G1G2}.

∴ P(A)= \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{4}\), \(P(B)=\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)

and P(A∩B) = \(\frac{n(A \cap B)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{4}\)

Suppose B has already occurred and then A occurs.

So, we have to find P(A/B).

Now, \(P(A / B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{(1 / 4)}{(1 / 2)}=\left(\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{2}{1}\right)=\frac{1}{2}\).

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{1}{2}\).

2. Let A = event that both the children are girls, and

E = event that at least one of the children is a girl.

Then, A = {G1G2}, E = {G1B2, B1G2, G1G2} and A∩E = {G1G2}.

∴ P(A)= \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{4}\), P(E)= \(\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{4}\)

and \(P(A \cap E)=\frac{n(A \cap E)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{4}\).

Suppose E has already occurred and then A occurs.

So, we have to find P(A/E).

Now, \(P(A / E)=\frac{P(A \cap E)}{P(E)}=\frac{(1 / 4)}{(3 / 4)}=\left(\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{4}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{3}\)

Hence, the required probability is 1/3.

Example 5. An instructor has a question bank consisting of 300 easy true/false questions; 200 difficult true/false questions; 500 easy multiple-choice questions and 400 difficult multiple-choice questions. If a question is selected at random from the question bank, what is the probability that it will be an easy question given that it is a multiple-choice question?
Solution:

Clearly, the sample space consists of 1400 questions.

∴ n(S) = 1400.

Let A = event of selecting an easy question, and

B = event of selecting a multiple-choice question.

Then, A∩B = event of selecting an easy multiple-choice question.

∴ n(A) = (300 +500) = 800, n(B) = (500 +400) = 900 and n(A∩B) = 500.

So, P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{800}{1400}=\frac{4}{7}\), P(B)= \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{900}{1400}=\frac{9}{14}\)

and \(P(A \cap B)=\frac{n(A \cap B)}{n(S)}=\frac{500}{1400}=\frac{5}{14} \text {. }\)

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{5}{14}\)

Suppose B has already occurred and then A occurs.

Thus we have to find P(A/B)

Now, P(A/B)= \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{(5 / 14)}{(9 / 14)}=\left(\frac{5}{14} \times \frac{14}{9}\right)=\frac{5}{9}\).

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{5}{9}\).

Example 6. Two numbers are selected at random from the integers 1 through 9. If the sum is even, find the probability that both the numbers are odd.
Solution:

Out of the numbers from 1 to 9, there are 5 odd numbers and 4 even numbers.

Let A = event of choosing two odd numbers, and

B = event of choosing two numbers whose sum is even.

Then, n(A) = number of ways of choosing 2 odd numbers out of = 5C2

n(B) = number of ways of choosing 2 numbers whose sum is even

= (4C2 + 5C2) [2 out of 4 even and 2 out of 5 odd].

n(A∩B) = number of ways of choosing 2 odd numbers out of 5 = 5C2.

Suppose B has already occurred and then A occurs.

Then, we have to find P(A/B).

Now, P(A/B) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{n(A \cap B)}{n(B)}=\frac{{ }^5 C_2}{{ }^4 C_2+{ }^5 C_2}\)

= \(\frac{5 \times 4}{2} \times \frac{2}{(4 \times 3+5 \times 4)}=\frac{20}{32}=\frac{5}{8}\) .

Hence the required probability is \(\frac{5}{8}\)

Properties Of Conditional Probability

Theorem 1. Let A and B be events of a sample space S of an experiment. Then, prove thatP(S/B) =P(B/B) -1.

Proof: We know that:

P(S/B) = \(\frac{P(S \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{P(B)}{P(B)}=1[because S \cap B=B]\)

And, \(P(B / B)=\frac{P(B \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{P(B)}{P(B)}=1\).

Hence, P(S/B) -P(B/B) =1.

Theorem 2. Let A and B be two events of a sample space S and let E be an event such that P(E) ≠ 0. Then, prove that P[(A∪B)/E] =P(A/E) +P(B/E) -P[(A∩B)/E].

Proof: We have

P[(A∪B)/E] = \(\frac{P[(A \cup B) \cap E]}{P(E)}\)

= \(\frac{P[(A \cap E) \cup(B \cap E)]}{P(E)}\)

= \(\frac{P(A \cap E)+P(B \cap E)-P[(A \cap E) \cap(B \cap E)]}{P(E)}\)

= \(\frac{P(A \cap E)+P(B \cap E)-P(A \cap B \cap E)}{P(E)}\)

= \(\frac{P(A \cap E)}{P(E)}+\frac{P(B \cap E)}{P(E)}-\frac{P[(A \cap B) \cap E]}{P(E)}\)

= \(P(A / E)+P(B / E)-P[(A \cap B) / E]\).

Hence, \(P(A / E)+P(B / E)-P[(A \cap B) / E]\)

Corollary: If A and B are disjoint events, prove that P[(A∪B)/E] =P(A/E)+P(B/E).

Proof: For any events A and B, we have

P[(A∪B)/E] = P(A/E) +P(B/E) -P[(A∩B)/E].

If A and B are disjoint, then P[(A∩B)/E] = 0.

Hence, in this case, we have P[(A∪B)/E] = P(A/E) +P(B/E).

Theorem 3. For any events A and B of a sample space S, proue Bird P(\(\bar{A}\)/B) = 1 -P(A/B), where \(\bar{A}\) denotes ‘not A’.

Proof: We know that

P(S/B) =1

⇒ P[(Au\(\bar{A}\))/B] =1 [S = \(A \cup \bar{A}]\)]

⇒ P(A/B)+ P(A/B)=1 [A \(\bar{A}\)= ]

⇒ P(\(\bar{A}\)/B) = 1-P(A/B).

Hence, P(\(\bar{A}\)/B) = 1-P(A/B).

Example 1. If A end B are two events such that P(A) = \(\frac{3}{5}\), P(B)= \(\frac{7}{10}\) and P(A∪B) = \(\frac{9}{10}\), then find

  1. P(A∩B)
  2. P(A/B)
  3. P(B/A).

Solution:

1. We know that P(A∩B) =P(A) +P(B) -P(A∪B)

= \(\left(\frac{3}{5}+\frac{7}{10}-\frac{9}{10}\right)=\frac{(6+7-9)}{10}=\frac{4}{10}=\frac{2}{5}\) .

2. \(P(A / B)=\frac{(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{(2 / 5)}{(7 / 10)}=\left(\frac{2}{5} \times \frac{10}{7}\right)=\frac{4}{7}\).

3. \(P(B / A)=\frac{(B \cap A)}{P(A)}=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}=\left(\frac{2 / 5}{3 / 5}\right)=\left(\frac{2}{5} \times \frac{5}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{3}\).

Example 2. Evaluate P(A∪B), if 2P(A) = P(B) = \(\frac{6}{13}\) and P(A/B) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Solution:

2P(A) = P(B) = \(\frac{6}{13}\)

⇒ P(A) = \(\frac{3}{13}\) and P(B) = \(\frac{6}{13}\)

∴ P(A/B) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}\)

⇒ \(P(A \cap B)=P(A / B) \cdot P(B)=\left(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{6}{13}\right)=\frac{2}{13}\).

So, P(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A∩B)

= \(\left(\frac{3}{13}+\frac{6}{13}-\frac{2}{13}\right)=\frac{(3+6-2)}{13}=\frac{7}{13} .\)

Hence, P(A∪B) = \(\frac{7}{13}\)

Example 3. Let A and B be events such that P(A) = \(\frac{1}{3}\),P(B) = \(\frac{1}{4}\) and P(A∩B) = \(\frac{1}{5}\) Find:

  1. P(A/B)
  2. P(B/A)
  3. P(A∪B)
  4. P(B/A)

Solution:

We have:

1. P(A/B) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{(1 / 5)}{(1 / 4)}=\left(\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{4}{1}\right)=\frac{4}{5}\).

2. P(B/A) = \(\frac{P(B \cap A)}{P(A)}=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}=\frac{(1 / 5)}{(1 / 3)}=\left(\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{3}{1}\right)=\frac{3}{5}\)

3. \(P(A \cup B)\) = \(P(A)+P(B)-P(A \cap B)\)

= \(\left(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}\right)=\frac{(20+15-12)}{60}=\frac{23}{60}\)

4. \(P(\bar{B} / \bar{A})=\frac{P(\bar{B} \cap \bar{A})}{P(\bar{A})}=\frac{P(\bar{A} \cap \bar{B})}{P(\bar{A})}=\frac{P(\overline{A \cup B})}{P(\bar{A})}\)

= \(\frac{1-P(A \cup B)}{1-P(A)}=\frac{\left(1-\frac{23}{60}\right)}{\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)}=\frac{(37 / 60)}{(2 / 3)}=\left(\frac{37}{60} \times \frac{3}{2}\right)=\frac{37}{40}\).

Conditional Probability Exercise 1A

Question 1. Let A and B be events such that P(A) = \(\frac{7}{13}\), P(B)= \(\frac{9}{13}\) and P(A∩B)= \(\frac{4}{13}\) Find

  1. P(A/B)
  2. P(B/A)
  3. P(A∪B)
  4. \(P(\bar{A} / \bar{B}).\)

Solution:

  1. 4/9
  2. 4/7
  3. 12/13
  4. 1/6

Question 2. Let A and B be events such that P(A)= \(\frac{5}{11}\) ,P(B)= \(\frac{6}{11}\) and P(A∪B)= \(\frac{7}{11}\). Find

  1. P(A∩B)
  2. P(A/B)
  3. P(B/A)
  4. \(P(\bar{A} / \bar{B})\)

Solution:

  1. 4/11
  2. 2/3
  3. 4/5
  4. 4/5

Question 3. Let A and B be events such that P(A) = \(\frac{3}{10}\), P(B) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and P(B/A) = \(\frac{2}{5}\) Find

  1. P(A∩B)
  2. P(A∪B)
  3. P(A/B).

Solution:

  1. 3/25
  2. 17/25
  3. 6/25

Question 4. Let A and B be events such that 2P(A) = P(B) = \(\frac{5}{13}\) and P(A/B) = \(\frac{2}{5}\) Find

  1. P(A∩B)
  2. P(A∪B)

Solution:

  1. 2/13
  2. 11/26

Question 5. A die is rolled. If the outcome is an even number, what is the probability that it is a number greater than 2?
Solution: 2/3

Question 6. A coin is tossed twice. If the outcome is at most one tail, what is the probability that both head and tail have appeared?
Solution: 2/3

Question 7. Three coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability that all coins show heads if at least one of the coins shows a head.
Solution: 1/7

Question 8. Two unbiased dice are thrown. Find the probability that the sum of the numbers appearing is 8 or greater if 4 appears on the first die.
Solution: 1/2

Hint: Let A =event of getting the sum 8 or greater, and

B = event of getting a 4 on the first die.

∴ A ={(2, 6),(3, 5), (3, 6),(4, 4), (4, 5),(4, 6), (5, 3),(5, 4), (5, 5),(5, 6), (6,2),(6, 3), (6, 4),(6, 5), (6, 6)}

B ={(4,1), (4, 2),(4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6)}.

(A∩B) ={(4,4), (4, 5), (4, 6)}.

∴ n(A) =15, n(B) =6 and n(A∩B) =3.

Hence, the required probability = P(A/B) = \(\frac{n(A \cap B)}{n(B)}=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 9. A die is thrown twice and the sum of the numbers appearing is observed to be 8. What is the conditional probability that the number 5 has appeared at least once?
Solution: 2/5

Question 10. Two dice were thrown and it is known that the numbers which come up were different. Find the probability that the sum of the two numbers was 5.
Solution: 2/15

Hint: Let A =event that the sum of two numbers appeared is 5, and

B =event event that the two dice show different numbers.

Then, A ={(2, 3), (3, 2), (1, 4), (4,1)}.

Thus, n(A) =4, n(B) =30, A∩B=A and so n(A n B) =n(A) =4

∴ the required probability = P(A/B) = \(\frac{n(A \cap B)}{n(B)}=\frac{4}{30}=\frac{2}{15}.\)

Question 11. A coin is tossed and then a die is thrown. Find the probability of obtaining a 6, given that a head came up.
Solution: 1/6

Let A =event that the die shows a 6, and

B =event that a head comes up.

Then, A ={(H, 6), (T, 6)}

and B ={(H,1), (H, 2), (H, 3), (H, 4), (H, 5), (H, 6)}.

Then, P(A/B) = \(\frac{n(A \cap B)}{n(B)}=\frac{1}{6}\).

Question 12. A couple has 2 children. Find the probability that both are boys if it is known that

  1. One of the children is a boy, and
  2. The elder child is a boy.

Solution:

  1. 1/3
  2. 1/2

Question 13. In a class, 40% of students study mathematics; 25% study biology, and 15% study both mathematics and biology. One student is selected at random. Find the probability that

  1. He studies mathematics if it is known that he studies biology
  2. He studies biology if it is known that he studies mathematics.

Solution:

  1. 3/5
  2. 3/8

Hint:

Let M =event of studying mathematics, and

B =event of studying biology.

Then P(M)= \(\frac{40}{100}\) = \(\frac{2}{5}\), P(B)= \(\frac{25}{100}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\) and P(M nB)= \(\frac{15}{100}\) = \(\frac{3}{20}\)

  1. P(M/B) = \(\frac{P(M \cap B)}{P(B)}\)
  2. P(B/M) = \(\frac{P(M \cap B)}{P(M)}\)

Question 14. The probability that a student selected at random from a class will pass in Hindi is 4/5 and the probability that he passes in Hindi and English is 1/2. What is the probability that he will pass in English if it is known that he has passed in Hindi?
Solution: 5/8

Hint: Given, P(H)= \(\frac{4}{5}\) and P(H∩E)= \(\frac{1}{2}\)

∴ P(E/H) = \(\frac{P(E \cap H)}{P(H)}=\frac{P(H \cap E)}{P(H)} \text {. }\)

Question 15. The probability that a certain person will buy a shirt is 0.2, the probability that he will buy a coat is 0.3 and the probability that he will buy a shirt given that he buys a coat is 0.4. Find the probability that he will buy both a shirt and a coat.
Solution: 0.12

Hint: P(S) = 02, P(C) = 0.3, P(S/C)= 0.4.

∴ P(S/C) = \(\frac{P(S \cap C)}{P(C)}\)

⇒ P(S∩C)=P(C)·P(S/C).

Question 16. In a hostel, 60% of the students read Hindi newspapers, 40% read English newspapers and 20% read both Hindi and English newspapers. A student is selected at random.

  1. Find the probability that he reads neither Hindi nor English newspapers.
  2. If he reads Hindi newspaper, what is the probability that he reads English newspaper?
  3. If he reads an English newspaper, what is the probability that he reads Hindi newspaper?

Solution:

  1. 1/5
  2. 1/3
  3. 1/2

Question 17. Two integers are selected at random from integers 1 through 11. If the sum is even, find the probability that both the numbers selected are odd.
Solution: 3/5

Hint: Let A =event of choosing both odd numbers,

B =event that sum of chosen numbers is even.

In integers from 1 to 11, there are 5 even and 6 odd integers.

⇒ \(P(A)=\frac{{ }^6 C_2}{{ }^{11} C_2}=\frac{3}{11}, P(B)=\left(\frac{{ }^6 C_2+{ }^5 C_2}{{ }^{11} C_2}\right)=\frac{5}{11}, P(A \cap B)=\frac{{ }^6 C_2}{{ }^{11} C_2}=\frac{3}{11}\)

∴ required probability = P(A/B) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}\).

Multiplication Theorem On Probability

Let A and B be two events associated with a sample space S. Then, the simultaneous occurrence of two events A and B is denoted by (A∩B) and also written as AB

Multiplication Theorem: Let A and B be two events associated with a sample space S. Then, prove that

P(AB) = P(A∩B) =P(A)·P(B/A) =P(B)·P(A/B), provided P(A)≠0 and P(B)≠ 0.

Proof: For any events A and B, we have

P(A/B) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}\), where P(A)≠0.

∴ P(A∩B)=P(B)·P(A/B)….. (1)

Again, P(B/A) = \(\frac{P(B \cap A)}{P(A)}=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}\) where P(B)≠0.

∴ P(A∩B) =P(A)·P(B/A)…….(2)

From (1) and (2), we get

P(A∩B) =P(B)·P(A/B) = P(A)·P(A/B), where P(A)≠0 and P(A)≠0.

Multiplication Rule for Three Events: For any three events A, B, and C of the same sample space, we have P(A∩B∩C) = P(A)·P(B/A)·P[C/(A∩B)]

= P(A)·P(B/A)·(C/AB).

This rule can be extended for four or more events.

Multiplication Theorem On Probability Solved Examples

Example 1. An urn contains 8 white and 4 red balls. Two balls are drawn from the urn one after the other without replacement. What is the probability that both drawn balls are white?
Solution:

Let A and B denote respectively the events that the first and second balls both drawn are white.

Then, we have to find P(A∩B).

Now, P(A) = P (white ball in the first draw) = \(\frac{8}{12}\).

After the occurrence of event A, we are left with 7 white and 4 red balls.

The probability of drawing second white ball, given that the first ball drawn is white, is clearly the conditional probability of occurrence of B, given that A has occurred.

∴ P(B/A) = \(\frac{7}{11}\).

By multiplication rule of probability, we have \(P(A \cap B)=P(A) \cdot P(B / A)=\left(\frac{8}{12} \times \frac{7}{11}\right)=\frac{14}{33}\)

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{14}{33}\)

Example 2. Three cards are drawn successively without replacement from a pack of 52 well-shuffled cards. What is the probability that first two cards are queens and the third card drawn is a king?
Solution:

Let Q denote the event that the card drawn is a queen and K be the event that the card drawn is a king. Then, we have to find P(QQK).

Probability of drawing first queen is P(Q)= \(\frac{4}{52}\)

Now, there are 3 queens in the remaining 51 cards.

Let P(Q/Q) be the probability of getting the second queen with the condition that one queen has already been drawn.

∴ P(Q/Q)= \(\frac{3}{51}\)

Lastly, P(K/QQ) is the probability of a third drawn card to be a king, with the condition that two queens have already been drawn.

Now, there are 4 kings in remaining 50 cards.

∴ P(K/QQ)= \(\frac{4}{50}\)

By multiplication law of probability, we have P(QQK)=P(Q∩Q∩K)

=P(Q)·P(Q/Q)·P(K/QQ)

= \(\left(\frac{4}{52} \times \frac{3}{51} \times \frac{4}{50}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{13} \times \frac{1}{17} \times \frac{2}{25}\right)=\frac{2}{5525}\)

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{2}{5525}\)

Independent Events: Two events A and B are said to be independent if

P(A/B) = P(A), where P(B)≠0 and P(B/A) = P(B), where P(A)≠0.

i.e., event A does not depend on the occurence of event B and vice versa.

Condition for Independence of Two Events: For any two events A and B, we have

P(A∩B) = P(A)·P(B/A)…. (1)

If A and B are independent, we have P(B/A) = P(B).

∴ (1) becomes P(A∩B) = P(A) xP(B).

Thus, two events A and B associated with the same random experiment are said to be independent if P(A∩B) =P(A)xP(B).

Note: Two events A and B are said to be dependent if they are not independent, i.e., if P(A∩B)≠P(A)xP(B).

Difference between Two Mutually Exclusive and Independent Events: Two events A and B are said to be mutually exclusive if A∩B = φ and in this case P(A∩B) -P(φ) =0.

Also, we know that two events A and B are independent if P(A nB)= P(A) xP(B).

Clearly, two independent events with nonzero probabilities cannot be mutually exclusive.

Also, two mutually exclusive events with nonzero probabilities cannot be mutually independent.

Three events A, B and C are said to be mutually independent, if

P(A∩B) =P(A) x P(B), P(A∩C) =P(A) x P(C), P(B∩C) =P(B) x P(C) and P(A∩B ∩C) =P(A) x P(B) x P(C).

If at least one of the above is not true for three given events A, B and C, then we say that these events are not independent.

Example 3. Let E1 and E2 be two events such that P(E1) = 0.3, P(\(E_1 \cup E_2\)) =0.4 and P(E2) = x. Find the value of x such that 

  1. E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive,
  2. E1 and E2 are independent.

Solution:

Let E1 and E2 be mutually exclusive. Then, E1 ∩ E2 = φ.

∴ P(E1 ∩ E2)=P(E1)+P(E2)

⇒ 0.4 = 0.3+x

⇒ x = 0.1.

Thus, when E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive, then x = 0.1.

2. Let E1 and E2 be two independent events. Then,

P(E1 ∩ E2) =P(E1) X P(E2) = 0.3 x x = 0.3x.

∴ P(\(E_1 \cup E_2\)) =P(E1)+P(E2)-P(E1∩E2)

⇒ 0.4 =0.3+ x-0.3x

⇒ 0.7x = 0.1

⇒ x =\(=\frac{0.1}{0.7}=\frac{1}{7} .\)

Thus, when E1 and E2 are independent, then A = \(\frac{1}{7} .\)

Example 4. Let E1 and E2 are two independent events such that P(E1) =0.35 and P(\(E_1 \cup E_2\)) = 0.60,find P(E2).
Solution:

Let P(E2)= A.

Then, E1 and E2 being independent events, we have

P(E1∩E2) =P(E1) X P(E2) = 0.35 X x = 0.35x.

Now, P(E1∪E2)=P(E1)+P(E2)-P(E1∩E2)

⇒ 0.60 =0.35 + x – 0.35x

⇒ 0.65A =0.25

⇒ x = \(\frac{0.25}{0.65}=\frac{25}{65}=\frac{5}{13}\) .

Hence, \(P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{5}{13}\).

Example 5. A coin is tossed thrice. Let the event E be ‘the first throw results in a head’, and the event F be ‘the last throw results in a tail’. Find whether the events E and F are independent.
Solution:

When a coin is tossed three times, the sample space is given by S = [HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, TTH, TUT, HTT, TTT}.

Now, E = event that the first throw results in a head.

∴ E = {HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT}.

And, F = event that the last throw results in a tail.

∴ F = {HHT, THT, HTT, TIT}.

So, (E∩F) = {HHT, HIT}.

Clearly, n(E) = 4, n(F) = 4, n(E nF) = 2 and n(S) = 8.

∴ P(E)= \(\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}=\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}, P(F)=\frac{n(F)}{n(S)}=\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}\)

and \(P(E \cap F)\)=\(\frac{n(E \cap F)}{n(S)}\)=\(\frac{2}{8}\)=\(\frac{1}{4}\)

Thus, P(E∩F) = P(E )x P(F).

Hence, E and F are independent events.

Example 6. An unbiased die is tossed twice. Find the probability of getting a 4, 5 or 6 on the first toss and a 1, 2,3 or 4 on the second toss.
Solution:

In each case, the sample space is given by S = {1,2,3,4,5,6}.

Let E = event of getting a 4,5 or 6 on the first toss.

And, F = event of getting a 1,2,3 or 4 on the second toss.

Then, P(E) = \(\frac{3}{6}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and P(F)= \(\frac{4}{6}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Clearly, E and F are independent events.

∴ required probability=P(E∩F) = P(E) x P(F)

[E and F are independent]

= \(\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{3}\)

Example 7. Ramesh appears for an interview for two posts, A and B, for which the selection is independent. The probability for his selection for Post A is (1/6) and for Post B, it is (1/7). Find the probability that Ramesh is selected for at least one post.
Solution:

Let E1 = event that Ramesh is selected for tire post A, and

E2 = event that Ramesh is selected for the post B.

Then, \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{1}{6} \text { and } P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{1}{7}\)

Clearly, E1 and E2 are independent events.

∴ \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)=P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(E_2\right)=\left(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{7}\right)=\frac{1}{42}\).

∴ P(Ramesh is selected for at least one post) =P(E1∪E2)

= P(E1)+P(E2)-P(E1∩E2)

= \(\left(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{7}-\frac{1}{42}\right)=\frac{12}{42}=\frac{2}{7}\).

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{2}{7}\)

Example 8. A can solve 90% of the problems given in a book, and B can solve 70%. What is the probability that at least one of them will solve a problem selected at random from the book?
Solution:

Let E1 =event that A solves the problem,

and E2 =event that B solves the problem.

Then, \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{90}{100}=\frac{9}{10} \text { and } P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{70}{100}=\frac{7}{10}\)

Clearly, E1 and E2 are independent events.

∴ \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)=P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(E_2\right)=\left(\frac{9}{10} \times \frac{7}{10}\right)=\frac{63}{100}\).

∴ P(at least one of them will solve the problem)

= P(E1∪E2)

= P(E1)+P(E2)-P(E1∩E2)

= \(\left(\frac{9}{10}+\frac{7}{10}-\frac{63}{100}\right)=\frac{(90+70-63)}{100}=\frac{97}{100}\)

Hence, the required probability is 0.97.

Example 9. The probability that A hits a target is (1/3) and the probability that B hits it is (2/5). What is the probability that the target will be hit if both A and B shoot at it?
Solution:

Let E1 =event that A hits the target,

and E2 =event that B hits the target.

Then, \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{1}{3} \text { and } P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{2}{5} \text {. }\)

Clearly, E1 and E2 are independent events.

∴ \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)=P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(E_2\right)=\left(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{2}{5}\right)=\frac{2}{15}\)

∴ P(target is hit) = P(A hits or B hits)

= P(E1 ∪E2)

= P(E1)+P(E2)-P(E1∩E2)

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{2}{15}\)

Example 10. A and B appear for an interview for two posts. The probability of A’s selection is (1/3) and that of B’s selection is (2/5). Find the probability that only one of them will be selected.
Solution:

Let E1 = event that A is selected, and E2 = event that B is selected.

Then, P(E1)= \(\frac{1}{3}\) and P(E2) = \(\frac{2}{5}\)

⇒ \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{3} \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{2}{5}\right)=\frac{3}{5}\)

∴ P(event that only one of them is selected)

=  P[(E1 and not E2) or (E2 and not E1]

= \(P\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right)+P\left(E_2 \cap \bar{E}_1\right) \quad\left[because \quad\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right) \cap\left(E_2 \cap \bar{E}_1\right)=\phi\right]\)

= \(P\left(E_1\right) \cdot P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)+P\left(E_2\right) \cdot P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)\)

[because \(E_1 and \bar{E}_2\) are independent, and \(E_1 and \bar{E}_1\) are independent]

= \(\left(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{3}{5}\right)+\left(\frac{2}{5} \times \frac{2}{3}\right)\)

= \(\left(\frac{1}{5}+\frac{4}{15}\right)=\frac{7}{15}\)

Example 11. A speaks the truth in 60% of the cases, and B m 90% o/ f/zc cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact?
Solution:

Let E1 = event that A speaks the truth, and E2 = event that B speaks the truth.

Then, \(\bar{E}_1\) = event that A tells a lie,

and \(\bar{E}_2\) = event that B tells a lie.

Clearly, E1 and E2 are independent events.

Also, (E1 and \(\bar{E}_2\)) as well as (\(\bar{E}_1\) and E2) are independent.

Now, \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{60}{100}=\frac{3}{5} ; P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{90}{100}=\frac{9}{10} ;\)

⇒ \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=\left(1-\frac{3}{5}\right)=\frac{2}{5} \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{9}{10}\right)=\frac{1}{10}\).

∴ P(A and B contradict each other)

= P[(A speaks the truth and B tells a lie) or (A tells a lie and B speaks the truth)]

= \(P\left[\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right) \cup\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap E_2\right)\right]\)

= \(P\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right)+P\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap E_2\right) \quad\left[because \quad\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right) \cap\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap E_2\right)=\phi\right]\)

= \(\left\{P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)\right\}+\left\{P\left(\bar{E}_1\right) \times P\left(E_2\right)\right\}\)

= \(\left(\frac{3}{5} \times \frac{1}{10}\right)+\left(\frac{2}{5} \times \frac{9}{10}\right)=\left(\frac{3}{50}+\frac{18}{50}\right)=\frac{21}{50}\).

Percentage of cases in which A and B Contradict each other = \(\left(\frac{21}{50} \times 100\right) \%\) = 42%

Example 12. The probabilities of a specific problem being solved independently by A and B are 1/2 and 1/3 respectively. If both try to solve the problem independently, find the probability that

  1. The problem is solved
  2. Exactly one of them solves the problem.

Solution:

Let E1 =event that A solves the problem,

and E2 =event that B solves the problem.

Then, P(E1) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and P(E2) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

⇒ \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{1}{2} \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{3} \text {. }\)

Clearly, E1 and E2 are independent events.

⇒ \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)=P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(E_2\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{6}\).

1. P(the problem is solved)

= P(at least one of A and B solves the problem)

= \(P\left(E_1 \text { or } E_2\right)=P\left(E_1 \cup E_2\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_1\right)+P\left(E_2\right)-P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)\)

= \(\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{6}\right)=\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\).

2. P(exactly one of them solves the problem)

= \(P\left(E_1 \text { or } E_2\right)=P\left(E_1 \cup E_2\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_1\right)+P\left(E_2\right)-P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)\)

= \(=\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{1}{2}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}\right)=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\).

Example 13. Amit and Nisha appear for an interview for two vacancies in a company. The probability of Amit’s selection is 1/5 and that of Nisha’s selection is 1/6. What is the probability that

  1. Both of them are selected?
  2. Only one of them is selected?
  3. None of them is selected?

Solution:

Let E1 = event that Amit is selected,

and E2 = event that Nisha is selected.

Then, P(E1) = \(\frac{1}{5}\) and P(E2) = \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Clearly, E1 and E2 are independent events.

1. P(both are selected) =P(E1∩E2)

=P(E1)xP(E2) [E1 and E2 are independent]

= \(\left(\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{1}{6}\right)=\frac{1}{30}\)

2. P(only one of them is selected)

=P[(E1 and not E2) or (E2 and not E1]

=P(E1 and not E2) +P(E2 and not E1)

=P(E1) -P(not E2) +P(E2)-P(not E1)

=P(E1)•[1 -P(E2)] +P(E2)•[1 -P(E1)]

= \(\frac{1}{5} \cdot\left(1-\frac{1}{6}\right)+\frac{1}{6} \cdot\left(1-\frac{1}{5}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{5}{6}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{4}{5}\right)\)

= \(\left(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{2}{15}\right)=\frac{9}{30}=\frac{3}{10}\)

3. P (none of them is selected)

=P(not E1 and not E2)

=P(not E1) and P(not E2)

=[1-P(E1)] [1-P(E2)1]

= \(\left(1-\frac{1}{5}\right) \cdot\left(1-\frac{1}{6}\right)=\left(\frac{4}{5} \times \frac{5}{6}\right)=\frac{2}{3}\)

Example 14. Three groups of children contain 3 girls and 1 boy; 2 girls and 2 boys; and 1 girl and 3 boys. One child is selected at random from each group. Find the chance that the three children selected comprise 1 girl and 2 boys.
Solution:

Let G1, G2, and G3 be the events of selecting a girl from the first, second and third groups respectively, and let B1, B2, and B3 be the events of selecting a boy from the first, second and third groups respectively.

Then,

⇒ \(P\left(G_1\right)=\frac{3}{4} ; P\left(G_2\right)=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2} ; P\left(G_3\right)=\frac{1}{4}\)

⇒ \(P\left(B_1\right)=\frac{1}{4} ; P\left(B_2\right)=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2} \text { and } P\left(B_3\right)=\frac{3}{4}\)

∴ P(selecting 1 girl and 2 boys)

= \(P\left[\left(G_1 B_2 B_3\right) \text { or }\left(B_1 G_2 B_3\right) \text { or }\left(B_1 B_2 G_3\right)\right]\)

= \(P\left(G_1 B_2 B_3\right)+P\left(B_1 G_2 B_3\right)+P\left(B_1 B_2 G_3\right)\)

= \(\left\{P\left(G_1\right) \times P\left(B_2\right) \times P\left(B_3\right)\right\}+\left\{P\left(B_1\right) \times P\left(G_2\right) \times P\left(B_3\right)\right\}+\left\{P\left(B_1\right) \times P\left(B_2\right) \times P\left(G_3\right)\right\}\)

= \(\left(\frac{3}{4} \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{3}{4}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{3}{4}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{4}\right)=\left(\frac{9}{32}+\frac{3}{32}+\frac{1}{32}\right)=\frac{13}{32}\).

Hence, the chances of selecting 1 girl and 2 boys are \(\frac{13}{32}\)

Example 15. A problem is given to three students whose chances of solving it are 1/3, 2/7 and 3/8. What is the probability that the problem will be solved?
Solution:

Let the three students be  A, B, and C respectively. Let E1/E2/E3 be the events that the problem is solved by A, B, and C respectively. Then,

⇒ \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{1}{3}, P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{2}{7}, P\left(E_3\right)=\frac{3}{8} .\)

∴ \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{3} ; P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{2}{7}\right)=\frac{5}{7} \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_3\right)=\left(1-\frac{3}{8}\right)=\frac{5}{8}\)

∴ P(none solves the problem)

= P[(not E1) and (not E2) and (not E3)]

= \(P\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap \bar{E}_2 \cap \bar{E}_3\right)\)

= \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_2\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_3\right) \quad\left[because \bar{E}_1, \bar{E}_2, \bar{E}_3 \text { are independent }\right]\)

= \(\left(\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{5}{7} \times \frac{5}{8}\right)=\frac{25}{84}\).

∴ P(that the problem is solved)

=1-P(none solves the problem)

= \(\left(1-\frac{25}{84}\right)=\frac{59}{84}\) .

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{59}{84}\).

Example 16. A problem in mathematics is given to three students whose chances of solving it correctly are 1/2, 1/3 and 1/4 respectively. What is the probability that only one of them solves it correctly?
Solution:

Let A, B, and C be the given students and let E1,E2 and E3 be the events that the problem is solved by A, B, and C respectively. Then,

⇒ \(\bar{E}_1, \bar{E}_2 \text { and } \bar{E}_3\)are the events that the given problem is not solved by A, B, C respectively. Then,

⇒ \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{1}{2} ; P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{1}{3} ; P\left(E_3\right)=\frac{1}{4} ;\)

⇒ \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{1}{2} ; P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{3} \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_3\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{4}\right)=\frac{3}{4}\)

P (exactly one of them solves the problem)

= \(P\left[\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2 \cap \bar{E}_3\right) \text { or }\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap E_2 \cap \bar{E}_3\right) \text { or }\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap \bar{E}_2 \cap E_3\right)\right]\)

= \(P\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2 \cap \bar{E}_3\right)+P\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap E_2 \cap \bar{E}_3\right)+P\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap \bar{E}_2 \cap E_3\right)\)

= \(\left\{P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_2\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_3\right)\right\}+\left\{P\left(\bar{E}_1\right) \times P\left(E_2\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_3\right)\right\}\quad\)

+ \(\left\{P\left(\bar{E}_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_2\right) \times P\left(E_3\right)\right\}\)

= \(\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{3}{4}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{3} \times \frac{3}{4}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{1}{4}\right)\)

= \(\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{12}\right)=\frac{11}{24}\)

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{11}{24}\)

Example 17. Three critics review a book. For the three critics, the odds in favour of the book are (5:2), (4:3) and (3:4) respectively. Find the probability that the majority is in favour of the book.
Solution:

Let A, B, and C denote the events that the book is favoured by the first, second and third critic respectively. Then,

P(A)= \(\frac{5}{7}\);P(B)= \(\frac{4}{7}\);P(C) = \(\frac{3}{7}\);

⇒ \(P(\bar{A})=\left(1-\frac{5}{7}\right)=\frac{2}{7} ; P(\bar{B})=\left(1-\frac{4}{7}\right)=\frac{3}{7} \text { and } P(\bar{C})=\left(1-\frac{3}{7}\right)=\frac{4}{7}\)

Required probability

= P(2 critics favour the book or 3 critics favour the book)

= P(2 critics favour the book) + P(3 critics favour the book)

= P[{A and B and not C} or A and C and not B or {B and C and not A}] + P(A and B and C)

= \(P(A \cap B \cap \bar{C})+P(A \cap \bar{B} \cap C)+P(\bar{A} \cap B \cap C)+P(A \cap B \cap C)\)

= \(\{P(A) \times P(B) \times P(\bar{C})\}+\{P(A) \times P(\bar{B}) \times P(C)\}+\{P(\bar{A}) \times P(B) \times P(C)\}\)

+ \(\{P(A) \times P(B) \times P(C)\}\)

= \(\left(\frac{5}{7} \times \frac{4}{7} \times \frac{4}{7}\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{5}{7} \times \frac{3}{7} \times \frac{3}{7}\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{2}{7} \times \frac{4}{7} \times \frac{3}{7}\right)\)+\(\left(\frac{5}{7} \times \frac{4}{7} \times \frac{3}{7}\right)\)

= \(\left(\frac{80}{343}+\frac{45}{343}+\frac{24}{343}+\frac{60}{343}\right)=\frac{209}{343}\)

Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{209}{343}\)

Example 18. The odds against a man who is 45 years old, living till he is 70 are 7: 5, and the odds against his wife who is now 36, living till she is 61 are 5 : 3. Find the probability that

  1. The couple will be alive 25 years hence
  2. At least one of them will be alive 25 years hence.

Solution:

Let E1 = event that the husband will be alive 25 years hence, and E2 = event that the wife will be alive 25 years hence.

Then, \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{5}{12} and P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{3}{8}\).

∴ \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=\left(1-\frac{5}{12}\right)=\frac{7}{12} \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{3}{8}\right)=\frac{5}{8} \text {. }\)

Clearly, E1 and E2 are independent events.

1. P(the couple will be alive 25 years hence) =

= \(P\left(E_1 \text { and } E_2\right)=P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_1\right) \cdot P\left(E_2\right)=\left(\frac{5}{12} \times \frac{3}{8}\right)=\frac{5}{32}\).

2. P(at least one of them will be alive 25 years hence)

= 1-P(none will be alive 25 years hence)

= 1-P[(not E1) and (not E2)]

= \(1-P\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right)\)

= \(1-\left[P\left(\bar{E}_1\right) \cdot P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)\right] \quad\left[because \bar{E}_1 \text { and } \bar{E}_2 \text { are independent }\right]\)

= \(1-\left(\frac{7}{12} \times \frac{5}{8}\right)=\left(1-\frac{35}{96}\right)=\frac{61}{96}\)

Example 19. A, B and C shoot to hit a target. If A hits the target 4 times in 5 trials; B hits it 3 times in 4 trials and C hits it 2 times in 3 trials, what is the probability that the target is hit by at least 2 persons?
Solution:

Let E1, E2 and E3 be the events that A hits the target, B hits the target and C hits the target respectively. Then,

⇒ \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{4}{5}, P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{3}{4}, P\left(E_3\right)=\frac{2}{3} \)

⇒  \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=\left(1-\frac{4}{5}\right)=\frac{1}{5}, P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{3}{4}\right)=\frac{1}{4} \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_3\right)=\left(1-\frac{2}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{3}\)

Case 1 A, B, and C all hit the target

In this case, P(A, B and C) all hit the target)

= \(P\left(E_1\right. and E_2 and \left.E_3\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_1\right) \cdot P\left(E_2\right) \cdot P\left(E_3\right)\) [because \(E_1, E_2, E_3\) are independent]

= \(\left(\frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{2}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{5}\)

Case 2 A and B hit but not C

In this case, P(A and B hit but not C)

= \(P\left(E_1 \text { and } E_2 \text { and not } E_3\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2 \cap \bar{E}_3\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_1\right) \cdot P\left(E_2\right) \cdot P\left(\bar{E}_3\right)\left[because E_1, E_2, \bar{E}_3 \text { are independent }\right]\)

= \(\left(\frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{5}\).

Case 3 A and C both hit but not B

In this case, P(A and C hit but not B)

= \(P\left(E_1 \text { and } E_3 \text { and } \bar{E}_2\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_1\right) \cdot P\left(E_3\right) \cdot P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)\left[because E_1, E_3, \bar{E}_2\right. \text { are independent}\)

= \(\left(\frac{4}{5} \times \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{1}{4}\right)=\frac{2}{15}\)

Case 4 B and C both hit but not A

In this case, P(B and C hit but not A)

= \(P\left(E_2 \text { and } E_3 \text { and } E_1\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_2\right) \cdot P\left(E_3\right) \cdot P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)\left[because E_2, E_3, \bar{E}_1 \text { are independent }\right]\)

= \(\left(\frac{3}{4} \times \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{1}{5}\right)=\frac{1}{10}\).

Clearly, all these are mutually exclusive.

Hence, required probability = \(\left(\frac{2}{5}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{2}{15}+\frac{1}{10}\right)=\frac{5}{6} \text {. }\)

Multiplication Theorem On Probability Excercise 1B

Question 1. A bag contains 17 tickets, numbered from 1 to 17. A ticket is drawn and then another ticket is drawn without replacing the first one. Find the probability that both the tickets may show even numbers.
Solution: 7/34

Question 2. Two marbles are drawn successively from a box containing 3 black and 4 white marbles. Find the probability that both the marbles are black, if the first marble is not replaced before the second draw.
Solution: 1/7

Question 3. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards and without replacing this card, a second card is drawn. Find the probability that the first card is a club and the second card is a spade.
Solution: 13/204

Question 4. There is a box containing 30 bulbs of which 5 are defective. If two bulbs are chosen at random from the box in succession without replacing the first, what is the probability that both the bulbs chosen are defective?
Solution: 2/87

Question 5. A bag contains 10 white and 15 black balls. Two balls are drawn in succession without replacement. What is the probability that the first ball is white and the second is black?
Solution:  1/4

Question 6. An urn contains 5 white and 8 black balls. Two successive drawings of 3 balls at a time are made such that the balls drawn in the first draw are not replaced before the second draw. Find the probability that the first draw gives 3 white balls and the second draw gives 3 black balls.
Solution: 7/429

Explanation:

Required Probability = \(\left\{\frac{{ }^5 C_3}{{ }^{13} C_3} \times \frac{{ }^8 C_3}{{ }^{10} C_3}\right\}=\left(\frac{5 \times 4 \times 3}{13 \times 12 \times 11} \times \frac{8 \times 7 \times 6}{10 \times 9 \times 8}\right)\)

Question 7. Let E1 and E2 be the events such that P(E1) = 1/3 and P(E2) = 3/5 Find:

  1. P(E1∪E2), when E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive,
  2. P(E1∩E2), when E1 and E2 are independent.

Solution:

  1. 14/15
  2. 1/5

Question 8. If E1 and E2 are two events such that P(E1) =1/4, P(E2) = 1/3, and P(E1∪E2) = 1/2, show that E1 and E2 are independent events.
Solution: 4/5

Question 9. If E1 and E2 are independent events such that P(E1) =0.3 and P(E2) =0.4, find

  1. \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)\)
  2. \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)\)
  3. \(P\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right)\)
  4. \(P\left(\bar{E}_1 \cap E_2\right)\).

Solution:

  1. 0.12
  2. 0.58
  3. 0.42
  4. 0.28

Question 10. Let A and B be events such that P(A) = 1/2, P(B) = 7/12 and P(not A or not B) = 1/4 State whether A and B are

  1. Mutually exclusive,
  2. Independent.⇒

Solution:

  1. No
  2. No

Hint: P({not} A or {not} B) = \(P(\bar{A} \text { or } \bar{B})=P(\bar{A} \cup \bar{B})\)

= \(P(\overline{A \cap B})=1-P(A \cap B)\)

⇒ \(1-P(A \cap B)=\frac{1}{4}\)

⇒ \(P(A \cap B)=\frac{3}{4}\)

1. Since \(P(A \cap B) \neq 0\), so A and B are not mutually exclusive.

2. \(P(A) \times P(B)=\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{7}{12}\right)=\frac{7}{24} \neq P(A \cap B)\)

⇒ A and B are not independent.

Question 11. Kamal and Vimal appeared for an interview for two vacancies. The probability of Kamal’s selection is 1/3 and that of Vimal’s selection is 1/5 Find the probability that only one of them will be selected.
Solution: 2/5

Hint:

Let E1 = event that kamal is selected,

and E2 = event that Vimal is selected. Then,

⇒ \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{1}{3}, P\left(E_2\right)=\frac{1}{5}, P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{3} \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{1}{5}\right)=\frac{4}{5}\)

∴ required probability

= \(P\left[\left(E_1 \text { and }{not} E_2\right) \text { or }\left(E_2 \text { and } {not} E_1\right)\right]\)

= \(P\left[\left(E_1\right.\right. and \left.\bar{E}_2\right) or \left(E_2\right. and \left.\left.\bar{E}_1\right)\right]\)

= \(P\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right)+P\left(E_2 \cap \bar{E}_1\right)\)

= \(\left\{P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)\right\}+\left\{P\left(E_2\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)\right\}\).

Question 12. Arun and Ved appeared for an interview for two vacancies. The probability of Aran’s selection is 1/4 and that of Ved’s rejection is 2/3. Find the probability that at least one of them will be selected.
Solution: 1/2

Hint:

Let E1 =event that Arun is selected,

and E2 =event that Ved is selected.

Then, \(P\left(E_1\right)=\frac{1}{4} \text { and } P\left(E_2\right)=\left(1-\frac{2}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{3} \text {. }\)

Clearly, E1 and E2 are independent events.

∴ \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)=P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(E_2\right)=\left(\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{12}\)

Required probability = \(P\left(E_1 \text { or } E_2\right)=P\left(E_1 \cup E_2\right)\)

= \(P\left(E_1\right)+P\left(E_2\right)-P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)=\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{12}\right)=\frac{6}{12}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 13. A and B appear for an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The probability of A’s selection is 1/6 and that of B’s selection is 1/4. Find the probability that

  1. Both of them are selected
  2. Only one of them is selected
  3. None is selected
  4. At least one of them is selected.

Solution:

  1. 1/24
  2. 1/3
  3. 5/8
  4. 3/8

Hint:

We have P(A)= \(\frac{1}{6}, P(B)=\frac{1}{4}\).

∴ \(P(\bar{A})=1-P(A)=\left(1-\frac{1}{6}\right)=\frac{5}{6}\) and \(P(\bar{B})=1-P(B)=\left(1-\frac{1}{4}\right)=\frac{3}{4}\).

1. P (both are selected)

= \(P(A \cap B)=P(A) \times P(B) \text {. }\)

2. P(only one of them is selected)

= \(P[(A \text { and not } B) \text { or }(B \text { and not } A)]\)

= \(P(A \cap \bar{B})+P(B \cap \bar{A})\)

= \(\{P(A) \times P(\bar{B})\}+\{P(B) \times P(\bar{A})\}\)

3. P( none is selected )=P(not A and not B)

= \(P(\bar{A} \cap \bar{B})=P(\bar{A}) \times P(\bar{B})\)

4. P (at least one is selected )= 1-P (none is selected).

Question 14. Given the probability that A can solve a problem is 2/3, and the probability that B can solve the same problem is 3/5, find the probability that

  1. At least one of a and b will solve the problem
  2. None of the two will solve the problem.

Solution:

  1. 13/15
  2. 2/15

Hint:

Let E1 =event that A can solve the problem

and E2 =event that B can solve the problem.

Then, E1 and E2 are clearly independent events.

∴ \(P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)=P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(E_2\right)=\left(\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{3}{5}\right)=\frac{2}{5} \text {. }\)

1. P(at least one of A and B can solve the problem)

= \(P\left(E_1 \cup E_2\right)=P\left(E_1\right)+P\left(E_2\right)-P\left(E_1 \cap E_2\right)=\left(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{3}{5}-\frac{2}{5}\right)=\frac{13}{15}\)

2. P(none can solve the problem)

=1-P(at least one can solve the problem)

= \(\left(1-\frac{13}{15}\right)=\frac{2}{15}\)

Question 15. A problem is given to three students whose chances of solving it are 1/4, 1/5, and 1/6 respectively. Find the probability that the problem is solved.
Solution: 1/2

Hint: Let A, B, and C be the events of solving the problem by the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd student respectively. Then,

P(A)= \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(B)= \(\frac{1}{5}\) and P(C)= \(\frac{1}{6}\)

⇒ \(P(\bar{A})=\left(1-\frac{1}{4}\right)=\frac{3}{4}  P(\bar{B})=\left(1-\frac{1}{5}\right)=\frac{4}{5} \text { and } P(\bar{C})=\left(1-\frac{1}{6}\right)=\frac{5}{6}\)

∴ P(none solves the problem)= P({not} A)and{not} B) and }({not} C))

= \(P(\bar{A} \text { and } \bar{B} \text { and } \bar{C})=P(\bar{A}) \times P(\bar{B}) \times P(\bar{C})\)

Question 16. The probabilities of A, B, and C solving a problem are 1/3, 1/4, and 1/6 respectively. If all three try to solve the problem simultaneously, find the probability that exactly one of them will solve it.
Solution: 31/72

Hint:

Given P(A)= \(\frac{1}{3}\), P(B)=\(\frac{1}{4}\) and P(C)= \(\frac{1}{6}\)

⇒ \(P(\bar{A})=\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{3}, P(\bar{B})=\left(1-\frac{1}{4}\right)=\frac{3}{4} \text { and } P(\bar{C})=\left(1-\frac{1}{6}\right)=\frac{5}{6}\)

∴ required probability

= P(exactly one of them solves the problem)

= \(P[(A \cap \bar{B} \cap \bar{C}) \text { or }(\bar{A} \cap B \cap \bar{C}) \text { or }(\bar{A} \cap \bar{B} \cap C)]\)

= \(P(A \cap \bar{B} \cap \bar{C})+P(\bar{A} \cap B \cap \bar{C})+P(\bar{A} \cap \bar{B} \cap C)\)

= \(\{P(A) \times P(\bar{B}) \times P(\bar{C})\}+\{P(\bar{A}) \times P(B) \times P(\bar{C})\}+\{P(\bar{A}) \times P(\bar{B}) \times P(C)\}\)

Question 17. A can hit a target 4 times in 5 shots, B can hit 3 times in 4 shots, and C can hit 2 times in 3 shots. Calculate the probability that

  1. A, B, and C all hit the target
  2. B and C hit and A does not hit the target.

Solution:

  1. 2/5
  2. 1/10

Hint: P(A hits)= 4/5, P(B hits)= 3/4 and P(C hits)= 2/3

  1. P(A hits and B hits and C hits) = P(A) x P(B) x P(C).
  2. P(B hits C hits and A does not hit) = P(B)xP(C)xP\((\overline{\mathrm{A}})\)

Question 18. Neelam has offered physics, chemistry, and mathematics in Class 12. She estimates that her probabilities of receiving a grade A in these courses are 0.2, 0.3, and 0.9 respectively. Find the probabilities that Neelam receives

  1. All a grades
  2. No a grade
  3. Exactly 2 grades.

Solution:

  1. 0.054
  2. 0.056
  3. 0.348

Hint:

1. P(getting all A grades) = \(P\left(A_1 A_2 A_3\right)=P\left(A_1\right) \times P\left(A_2\right) \times P\left(A_3\right)\)

2. P(getting no A grade) = \(P\left(\bar{A}_1 \bar{A}_2 \bar{A}_3\right)=P\left(\bar{A}_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{A}_2\right) \times P\left(\bar{A}_3\right)\) .

3. P(getting exactly two A grades)

= \(P\left[\left(\bar{A}_1 A_2 A_3\right) \text { or }\left(A_1 \bar{A}_2 A_3\right) {or}\left(A_1 A_2 \bar{A}_3\right)\right]\)

= \(P\left(\bar{A}_1 A_2 A_3\right)+P\left(A_1 \bar{A}_2 A_3\right)+P\left(A_1 A_2 \bar{A}_3\right)\)

= \(\left\{P\left(\bar{A}_1\right) \times P\left(A_2\right) \times P\left(A_3\right)\right\}+\left\{P\left(A_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{A}_2\right) \times P\left(A_3\right)\right\}+\left\{P\left(A_1\right) \times P\left(A_2\right) \times P\left(\bar{A}_3\right)\right\}\)

Question 19. An article manufactured by a company consists of two parts X and Y. In the process of manufacture of part X, 8 out of 100 parts may be defective. Similarly, 5 out of 100 parts of Y may be defective. Calculate the probability that the assembled product will not be defective.
Solution: 437/500

Hint: P(X is defective) = \(\frac{8}{100}\) = \(\frac{2}{25}\)

P(Y is defective) = \(\frac{5}{100}\) = \(\frac{1}{20}\)

P(X is not defective) = (1-\(\frac{2}{25}\)) = \(\frac{23}{25}\)

P(Y is not defective = (1-\(\frac{2}{20}\)) = \(\frac{19}{20}\)

Required probability =P(assembled part is not defective)

= P(X is not defective and Y is not defective)

= \(\left(\frac{23}{25} \times \frac{19}{20}\right)=\frac{437}{500}\).

Question 20. A town has two fire-extinguishing engines, functioning independently. The probability of availability of each engine when needed is 0.95. What is the probability that

  1. Neither of them is available when needed.
  2. An engine is available when needed?

Solution:

  1. 1/400
  2. 19/200

Hint: Let E1 =event of availability of the first engine.

And, E2 =event of availability of the second engine.

Then, \(P\left(E_1\right)=P\left(E_2\right)=0.95 and P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=(1-0.95)=0.05\).

1. P(neither of them is available when needed)

= \(P\left(\bar{E}_1 \text { and } \bar{E}_2\right)=P\left(\bar{E}_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_2\right) \text {. }\)

2. P(an engine is available when needed)

= \(P\left[\left(E_1 \text { and not } E_2\right) \text { or }\left(E_2 \text { and not } E_1\right)\right]\)

= \(P\left[\left(E_1 \text { and } \bar{E}_2\right) \text { or }\left(E_2 \text { and } \bar{E}_1\right)\right] \)

= \(P\left(E_1 \cap \bar{E}_2\right)+P\left(E_2 \cap \bar{E}_1\right)\)

= \(\left\{P\left(E_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)\right\}+\left\{P\left(E_2\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)\right\}\)

Question 21. A machine operates only when all of its three components function. The probabilities of the failures of the first, second, and third components are 0.14, 0.10, and 0.05 respectively. What is the probability that the machine will fail?
Solution: 0.02647

Hint: Let E1, E2, and E3 be the respective events that the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd components function. Then,

⇒ \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=0.14, P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=0.10 \text { and } P\left(\bar{E}_3\right)=0.05\)

P(E1) =(1- 0.14) = 0.86, P(E2) =(1- 0.10) = 0.90 and P(E3) =(1- 0.05) = 0.95

P(machine fails) =1 -P(machine functions)

=1-P[(E1 and E2 and E3)]

=1-P(E1)X P(E2)X P(E3)].

Question 22. An anti-aircraft gun can take a maximum of 4 shots at an enemy plane moving away from it. The probabilities of hitting the plane at the first, second, third, and fourth shots are 0.4,0.3,0.2 and 0.1 respectively. What is the probability that at least one shot hits the plane?
Solution: 0.6976

Hint: Let E1, E2, E3, and E4 be the respective events that the plane is hit in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th shots. Then,

P(E1) = 0.4, P(E2) = 0.3, P(E3) = 0.2 and P(E4) = 0.1

∴ \(P\left(\bar{E}_1\right)=(1-0.4)=0.6, P\left(\bar{E}_2\right)=(1-0.3)=0.7,\)

∴ \(P\left(\bar{E}_3\right)=(1-0.2)=0.8, P\left(\bar{E}_4\right)=(1-0.1)=0.9\)

∴ P(at least one shot hits the plane) = \(1-P\left(\bar{E}_1 \text { and } \bar{E}_2 \text { and } \bar{E}_3 \text { and } \bar{E}_4\right)\)

= \(1-\left\{P\left(\bar{E}_1\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_2\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_3\right) \times P\left(\bar{E}_4\right)\right\}\)

Question 23. Let S1 and S2 be two switches and let their probabilities of working be given by P(S1) = 4/5 and P(S2) = 9/10. Find the probability that the current flows from terminal A to terminal B when S1 and S2 are installed in series, shown as follows:
Solution: 18/25

Class 12 Maths Probability S1 And S2 Be two Switches

Hint: P(current flows from A to B)

=P(S1 is closed and S2 is closed)

=P(S1 and S2)=P(S1) x P(S2).

Question 24. Let S1 and S2 be two switches and let their probabilities of working be given by P(S1) = 4/5 and P(S2) = 3/4. Find the probability that the current flows from terminal A to terminal B, when S1 and S2 are installed in parallel, as shown below:
Solution: 11/12

Class 12 Maths Probability S1 And S2 Be Two Switches And Their Probabilities Of Working

Hint: P(the current flows) =P(S1 or S2 )

=P(S1∪S2)=P(S1)+P(S2)-P(S1∩S2)

=P(S1)+P(S2)-P(S1)xP(S2).

Question 25. A coin is tossed. If a head comes up, a die is thrown but if a tail comes up, the coin is tossed again. Find the probability of obtaining

  1. Two tails
  2. A head and the number 6
  3. A head and an even number.

Solution:

  1. 1/8
  2. 1/8
  3. 1/3

Hint:

S =[H1, HI, H3, HA, H5, H6, TT, TH) → n(S) = 8.

  1. P(two tails) = 1/8
  2. P(head and the number 6) = 1/8
  3. P(head and an even number) = 3/8

 

Trauma From Occlusion Question and Answers

Trauma From Occlusion Short Answers

Question 1. Primary and secondary trauma from occlusion.
Answer:

1. Primary:

  • When trauma from occlusion results from alteration of occlusal forces, it results in primary trauma from occlusion
  • It does not alter the level of connective tissue attachment
  • It does not initiate pocket formation because su- parental gingival fibres are not affected which prevents apical immigration of junctional epithelium

2. Secondary:

  • It is trauma from occlusion that results due to re- reduced ability of tissues to resist occlusal forces
  • Adaptive capacity is impaired by bone loss resulting from marginal inflammation
  • Reduces periodontal attachment
  • Alters leverage on remaining tissues

Read And Learn More: Periodontics Question and Answers

Question 2. Lipping.
Answer:

  • Excessive forces lead to the resorption of bone
  • When bone is resorbed in such cases, the body attempts to reinforce trabeculae to form new bone
  • This process is called buttressing

Types:

1. Central buttressing:

  • In it, endosteal cells deposit new bone
  • It restores bony trabeculae
  • Reduces the size of bone marrow

2. Peripheral buttressing:

  • Occurs on facial and lingual surfaces of bone
  • May produce shelflike thickening of the alveolar margin called lipping
  • It is pronounced bulge in the contour of the facial or lingual bone

Question 3. Define trauma from occlusion.
Answer:

  • When occlusal forces exceed the adaptive capacity of the periodontal tissues, the tissue injury results
  • This resultant injury is termed trauma from occlusion

Question 4. Diagnosis of trauma from occlusion.
Answer:

1. Fremitus test:

Procedure:

Ask the patient to contact the teeth together in the maximum intercuspal position

Place dampened index finger over the buccal surface of maxillary teeth

Examine the teeth which are displaced

Result:

  • Class 1- Mild vibration
  • Class 2- Easily palpable but no visible movements
  • Class 3- Movements visible with the naked eye

2. Radiographic features:

  • Increase in width of PDL space
  • Thickening of lamina dura along lateral borders of root, apical and bifurcation areas
  • Vertical bone loss
  • Radiolucency occurs due to condensation of alveolar bone
  • Root resorption

Question 5. Causes and changes produced by primary trauma from occlusion.
Answer:

Causes:

  • High filling restoration
  • Prosthetic replacement
  • Drifting movement or extrusion of teeth
  • Unreplaced missing teeth
  • Orthodontic movement of teeth

Changes Produced:

  • Does not alter the level of connective tissue attachment
  • Do not initiate the pocket formation
  • As suprarenal fibres are not affected it prevents apical migration of junctional epithelium

Question 6. Define acute and chronic trauma from occlusion
Answer:

1. Acute trauma from occlusion:

  • It results from an abrupt occlusal impact such as that produced by biting on a hard object

2. Chronic trauma from occlusion:

  • It develops from gradual changes in occlusion produced by tooth wear due to drifting movement and extrusion of teeth combined with parafunctional habits such as bruxism and clenching

Question 7. Facets.
Answer:

  • Facets are shiny and irregular
  • They indicate tooth-to-tooth wear that is associated with bruxism
  • These worn and abraded teeth are invariably firm with no sign of mobility

Question 8. Buttressing bone formation
Answer:

  • Excessive forces lead to the resorption of bone
  • When bone is resorbed in such cases, the body attempts to reinforce trabeculae to form new bone
  • This process is called buttressing

Types:

  1. Central buttressing
    • In it, endosteal cells deposit new bone
    • It restores bony trabeculae
    • Reduces the size of bone marrow
  2. Peripheral buttressing
    • Occurs on facial and lingual surfaces of bone
    • May produce shelf-like thickening of the alveolar margin called lipping
    • It is a pronounced bulge in the contour of the facial or lingual bone

Question 9. Primary and secondary trauma from occlusion
Answer:

Primary:

  • When trauma from occlusion results from alteration of occlusal forces, it results in primary trauma from occlusion
  • It does not alter the level of connective tissue attachment
  • It does not initiate pocket formation because supracre- stal gingival fibres are not affected which prevents apical migration of junctional epithelium

Secondary:

  • It is trauma from occlusion that results due to reduced ability of tissues to resist occlusal forces
  • Adaptive capacity is impaired by bone loss resulting from marginal inflammation
  • Reduces periodontal attachment Alters leverage on remaining tissues

Norma Verticalis Of The Skull Notes

Exterior Of The Skull

Different views of the skull are considered from the description point of view. These are as follows:

  1. Norma vertical: This is the superior view.
  2. Norma occipitalis: This is a posterior view.
  3. Norma frontalis: This is the anterior view.
  4. Norma lateralis: This is a lateral (side) view.
  5. Norma basalis: This is the inferior view.

Norma Vertical

Norma Verticalis Definition

Observation of the skull from the superior aspect is called norma verticalis.

Norma Verticalis Shape

Norma’s vertical view of the skull appears ovoid in shape. It is relatively wider posteriorly.

Norma Verticalis Bones

The following bones contribute to the norma verticalis:

  1. Frontal bone (frontal squama): It lies anteriorly.
  2. Occipital bone (squamous part): It lies posteriorly.
  3. Parietal bones (paired): These lie on each side of the midline.

Junctions Of Bones (Sutures)

  1. Sutures are the immovable joints of the skull which are fibrous in nature.
  2. In norma verticalis following sutures can be seen:
    • Coronal Suture: It is between the frontal and parietal bones.
    • Sagittal Suture: It is between the two parietal bones.
    • Lambdoid Suture: It is between the occipital and two parietal bones.

Norma Verticalis Features

1. Vertex

It is the highest point on the sagittal suture.

2. Vault

It is the arched roof of the skull.

3. Bregma

  • It is situated at the intersection between coronal and sagittal sutures.
  • Bregma is the site of a membranous gap in the foetal skull. This gap is known as anterior fontanelle.
  • Anterior fontanelle closes by 18 months.

4. Lambda

  • It is situated at the intersection of sagittal and lambdoid sutures.
  • In the foetal skull, there is a membranous gap at the site of lambda. This gap is known as posterior fontanelle.
  • Posterior fontanelle closes in 2-3 months.

5. Parietal Foramen

It pierces the parietal bone on each side of the midline about 3.5 cm in front of lambda. An emissary vein passes through it.

6. Obelion

It is the region on the sagittal suture between two parietal foramina.

7. Parietal Eminence

It is the area of maximum convexity of the parietal bone.

8. Temporal Lines

  • There are two temporal lines on each side:
    • Superior temporal line.
    • Inferior temporal line.
  • Both the temporal lines start as a single line from the zygomatic process of the frontal bone.
  • The two lines arch backwards and upwards and cross the frontal bone, coronal suture and parietal bone.
  • The superior temporal line fades out in the posterior part of the parietal bone.
  • Epicranial aponeurosis and temporal fascia are attached to a superior temporal line.
  • The inferior temporal line marks the upper limit of the origin of the temporalis muscle.

Exterior Of The Skull The Skull Norma Verticalis

Norma Verticalis Applied anatomy

1. Fontanelles serve two important purposes:

  • These allow moulding during birth.
  • These allow the brain to grow.

2. The presence of anterior fontanelle is both clinically and therapeutically very significant.

  • A bulge indicates increased intra-cranial tension (for example. in the case of a brain tumour).
  • An abnormal depression indicates excessive loss of fluid (for example. in case of bleeding and dehydration).
  • Diagnostic and therapeutic punctures could be carried out through anterior fontanelle.
  • Ultrasonography of the brain in infants is performed through anterior fontanelle.

3. The osseous closure of the anterior fontanelle is an important milestone in the normal development of a child.

4. Soft and pliable bones of the neonate can withstand a considerable amount of compression and moulding, a fact clinically important during childbirth.

5. In neonates the flat bones of the vault are very soft and, therefore, a depressed fracture is like a dimple (pond fracture).

6. In adults there is some amount of elasticity in flat vault bones which often prevents fractures in cases of minor trauma. However, if the trauma force exceeds the minimal elasticity, fractures are bound to occur.

7. In adults a depressed fracture always shows an irregular line of fracture at the periphery of the depressed area.

8. Almost invariably all fractures of the vault of the skull in children are associated with the rupture of the dura mater.

9. When the skull is compressed between two hard surfaces an axial shortening takes place along the line of the force and an axial lengthening takes place at a right angle. This results in the fracture of distant poles of the skull far from the actual site of the application of force.

10. Fracture of the skull is usually due to a direct blow. A forceful hit on the forehead may cause a linear fracture of the vertex.

11. Cranium is clinically important because it reflects the size of the brain. Macrocephaly (enlargement of the head) can be due to hydrocephalus. Microcephaly may be hereditary or due to the maldevelopment of the brain.

12. Because of the lack of regenerating capacity of the flat bones of the vault, a gap in it should be filled with tantalum or titanium.

Exterior Of The Skull Axial Deformity Of Skull Due To Compression

Exterior Of The Skull Linear Fracture Of Vertex

Norma Frontalis

Norma Frontalis Definition

When the skull is observed from the anterior aspect it is known as norma frontalis.

Norma Frontalis Shape

It is oval in shape being wider above than below.

Norma Frontalis Bones

Major bones contributing to the surface features of norma frontalis (excluding bones contributing to deeper orbits, nasal cavity and oral cavity) are as follows:

  1. Frontal bone (unpaired).
  2. Maxillae (paired).
  3. Nasal bones (paired).
  4. Zygomatic bones (paired).
  5. Mandible ethmoid (unpaired).

Junctions of Bones (Sutures)

  1. The junction between the zygomatic process of the frontal bone and the frontal process of the zygomatic bone is called the frontozygomatic suture. It is observed along the lateral margin of the orbital opening.
  2. A junction between the nasal part of the frontal bone and the frontal process of the maxilla (frontal-maxillary suture) is observed along the medial margin of the orbital opening in its upper part.
  3. The junction between the nasal part of the frontal bone and the nasal bones is called the frontonasal
    sutures.
  4. The junction between two nasal bones is a midline suture just above the anterior nasal aperture. This is called internasal suture.
  5. The junction between the maxilla and zygomatic bone (zygomaticomaxillary suture) is an oblique suture extending downwards and laterally from the lower border of each orbital opening.
  6. The junction between two maxillae is called an intermaxillary suture. It is a midline suture just below the anterior nasal aperture.

Note: Intermaxillary suture is also observed in the hard palate between the palatine processes of two maxillae.

Norma Lateralis: Definition, Features And Attachments

Norma Lateralis

Norma Lateralis Definition

When the skull is observed from the side, it constitutes norma lateralis.

Norma Lateralis Bones

The following bones can be visualized in this view:

  1. Frontal
  2. Parietal
  3. Occipital
  4. Nasal
  5. Zygomatic
  6. Temporal
  7. Sphenoid
  8. Maxilla

Norma Lateralis Features And Attachments

Exterior Of The Skull The Skull Norma Lateralis

1. Temporal Lines

There are two temporal lines, superior and inferior.

  • Superior Temporal Line
    • It commences at the frontal process of the zygomatic bone.
    • It arches upwards and backwards across the parietal bone.
    • It fades away on the temporal bone.
    • Temporal fascia is attached to it.
  • Inferior Temporal Line
    • It commences at the same point.
    • It runs inferior and parallel to the superior temporal line.
    • Posteriorly it curves downwards and forwards on the temporal bone to continue with the supramastoid crest.
    • It limits the attachment of the temporalis muscle.

2. Temporal fossa

  • Boundaries
    • Anteriorly: Zygomatic bone.
    • Superiorly: Superior temporal line.
    • Posteriorly: Superior temporal line. Supramastoid crest.
    • Inferiorly: Zygomatic arch.
  • Anterior Wall Of The Fossa Is Formed By:
    • The temporal surface of the zygomatic bone
    • The greater wing of the sphenoid
    • Frontal bone
  • Its Floor Is Formed By Following Bones:
    • Frontal
    • Parietal
    • Temporal
    • Greater wing of the sphenoid.
  • The Temporalis muscle is attached to the floor and inferior temporal line.
  • Other Contents Of Fossa Are:
    • Middle temporal artery (a branch of superficial temporal artery).
    • Deep temporal arteries arise from the maxillary artery.
    • A zygomaticotemporal nerve and a minute artery appear from the zygomaticotemporal foramen located on the temporal surface of the zygomatic bone.
    • Deep temporal nerves arise from the mandibular nerve.

3. Pterion

  • It is a circular area in the anterior part of the temporal fossa which encloses four bones, frontal, parietal, sphenoid and temporal. These four bones form an ‘H’ shaped suture.
  • It is located 4 cm above the zygomatic arch and 3.5 cm behind the front zygomatic suture.
  • The middle meningeal vein, anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery and stem of the lateral sulcus of the brain lie deep in the pterion.

4. Zygomatic Arch

  • It is formed by the temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.
  • It has two surfaces (outer and inner) and two borders (upper and lower).
  • Its outer surface is subcutaneous and crossed by the following structures from posterior to anterior:
    • Auriculotemporal nerve.
    • Superficial temporal vein.
    • Superficial temporal artery.
  • Masseter originates from its inner surface and lower border.
  • The temporal fascia is attached to its upper border.
  • The posterior end of the lower border is marked by the tubercle of the root of the zygoma. To this is attached the lateral ligament of the temporomandibular joint.
  • Roots of the zygomatic arch diverge from the tubercle. The anterior root (articular tubercle) passes medially in front of the mandibular fossa. The posterior root continues with the supramastoid crest.

5. External Acoustic Meatus

  • It is located behind the mandibular fossa below the posterior root of the zygoma.
  • Its anterior wall, floor and lower part of the posterior wall are formed by the tympanic part while its roof and upper part of the posterior wall are contributed by the squamous part of the temporal bone.
  • Margins of the meatus give attachment to the cartilaginous part of the external acoustic
    meatus.

6. MacEwen’s Triangle (Suprameatal Triangle)

  • It is situated posterosuperior to the external acoustic meatus.
  • The spine of Henle (supramental spine) may be present at the anteroinferior part of the triangle.
  • The mastoid antrum is situated about 12.5 mm deep to the supramental triangle.

7. Mastoid Process

  • It is a downward projection from the mastoid part of the temporal bone.
  • It is present below and behind the external acoustic meatus.
  • The muscles attached to it from anterior to posterior are:
    • Sternocleidomastoid.
    • Splenius capitis.
    • Longissimus capitis.
  • The posterior belly of the digastric originates from its medial aspect (digastric notch).

8. Styloid Process

  • It is a slender, elongated projection below the external acoustic meatus and in front of the mastoid process.
  • It provides attachments to the following five structures:
    • Anteriorly: Styloglossus muscle.
    • Posteriorly: Stylohyoid muscle.
    • Medially: Stylopharyngeus muscle.
    • Laterally: Stylomandibular ligament.
    • On the tip: Stylohyoid ligament.

9. Infratemporal Fossa

It is an irregular space below the zygomatic arch.

  • Boundaries
    • Anterior – Posterior surface of the body of the maxilla.
    • Medial – Lateral pterygoid plate and pyramidal process of palatine bone.
    • Lateral – Ramus of mandible
    • Roof – Infratemporal surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid.
  • Contents
    • Muscles
      • Lateral and medial pterygoids.
      • Temporalis.
    • Arteries
      • Maxillary artery (Ist and 2nd parts) with its branches.
      • Posterior superior alveolar branch of 3rd part of the maxillary artery.
    • Veins
      • Maxillary vein.
      • Pterygoid venous plexus.
      • Posterior superior alveolar vein.
    • Nerves
      • Mandibular nerve and its branches.
      • Chorda tympani.
      • Maxillary nerve.
      • Posterior superior alveolar nerve.
  • The anterior wall of the fossa shows two to three perforations for the posterior superior alveolar nerve and vessels.
  • The junction of the anterior and medial walls is marked by a fissure (pterygomaxillary fissure) through which it communicates with the pterygopalatine fossa.
  • The junction of the roof and anterior wall is marked by the lateral part of the inferior orbital fissure.
  • Foramen ovale and foramen supinosum are present in the roof of the fossa.
  • The lateral part of the fossa communicates with the temporal fossa through a gap between the zygomatic arch and the side of the skull.

10. Pterygomaxillary Fissure

  • It is a gap which leads into the pterygopalatine fossa.
  • Boundaries
    • Anterior: Maxilla.
    • Posterior: Pterygoid process.
  • The maxillary artery enters the pterygopalatine fossa through the pterygomaxillary fissure.
  • The maxillary nerve courses forward through it from the pterygopalatine fossa to enter the orbit through inferior orbital fissures.

11. Pterygopalatine fossa

  • Boundaries
    • Anterior: Posterior surface of maxilla.
    • Posterior:
      • Pterygoid process.
      • Greater wing of the sphenoid.
    • Medial: Perpendicular plate of palatine bone.
    • Floor: Fusion of anterior and posterior walls.
  • Communications
    • The pterygopalatine fossa communicates with,
    • The orbit, through the inferior orbital fissure.
    • The middle cranial fossa, through foramen rotundum.
    • The infratemporal fossa, through pterymaxillary fissure.
    • The nasal cavity, through the palatovaginal canal and sphenopalatine foramen.
    • The foramen lacerum, through the pterygoid canal.
  • Contents
    • The third part of the maxillary artery and its branches.
    • Maxillary nerve with its branches.
    • Pterygopalatine ganglion and its branches.

Norma Lateralis Applied anatomy

1. The spine of Henle is an important surgical landmark for surgery on the mastoid antrum.

2. Pterion is very important clinically because the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery and accompanying vein lie on its internal aspect and are vulnerable to tearing if there are fractures of bone-forming this region.

3. If the meningeal vessels in the region of the pterion are damaged, an extradural haematoma is formed. Such haematoma may exert pressure on the cerebral cortex.

4. Decompression of the brain in cases of extradural haematoma in the region of pterion can be done by the method of trephining (burr hole) at this site.

5. Temporal fascia is commonly used for making tympanic membrane grafts during surgery for the repair of the ear drum.

6. Deep temporal vessels and nerves along with the tendon of the temporalis muscle, transverse the gap deep to the zygomatic arch whose fracture can involve these structures.

7. An elongated styloid process usually needs surgical correction because it leads to multiple complications in the neck.

8. An oblique line drawn from the frontozygomatic suture to the pterion corresponds with the inferior surface of the frontal lobe. This surface landmark is of great neurosurgical importance.

9. In radiographs of the skull, the diploic canals containing the diploic veins may be mistaken for the fractures of the skull.

10. Calvaria is very thin in the region of the temporal fossa and, therefore, is likely to get fractured because of hard blows to the head.

11. In depressed fractures, the inner table of calvaria is often more extensively fractured than the outer table.

12. Zygomatic fracture is very common in facial injuries due to its prominent position.

13. Fracture of the skull is usually due to direct blows. A forceful hit on the forehead causes linear fractures of both vertex and base.

14. Junctions of frontal and temporal processes of zygomatic bone form surgically important landmarks in the treatment of maxillofacial injuries.

15. The periosteum and attachment of strong temporal fascia limit the displacement of zygomatic bone following injuries.

16. In a depressed fracture of the zygomatico-maxillary complex the maxilla is greatly damaged and there is displacement of the zygomatic bone without its fracture.

17. If a fracture of the zygomatic arch is associated with separation from the temporal fascia, then there occurs a downward displacement of the arch.

18. The weakest point of the zygomatic arch is its middle, just behind the temporo- zygomatic suture. This point is the most common fracture in cases of injuries to the arch.

19. Frontozygomatic suture, the zygomatic prominence, the zygomatic buttress and 1st molar tooth lie in the same vertical line. In the majority of zygomatic-complex
(zygomatic bone + adjacent bones like maxilla and zygomatic process of temporal) fracture, the zygomatic bone rotates along this axis.

Exterior Of The Skull Ftracture Of Skull Due To Blow On The Forehead

Exterior Of The Skull Depressed Fracture Of Zygomatico-Maxillary Complex

Exterior Of The Skull Axial Of Rotation Of Zygomatic Bone In Zygomatic Complex Fracture

Norma Frontalis: Features, Attachments and Anatomy

Norma Frontalis Features

Exterior Of The Skull The Skull Norma Frontalis

1. Three Large Apertures

One anterior nasal aperture and two orbital openings form the most striking feature of the norma frontalis.

  • Anterior Nasal Aperture
    • It is a midline aperture.
    • It is piriform in shape and wider below than above.
    • Its upper boundary is formed by the lower borders of nasal bones.
    • Its lateral and inferior boundaries are contributed by nasal notches of two maxillae.
    • The anterior nasal spine is a sharp projection at the lower margin of the nasal aperture, in the midline.
    • Rhinion is the lower end of the internasal suture.
    • A notch at the inferior border of the nasal bone is meant for passage of the external nasal nerve.
    • Margins of the aperture give attachments to the nasal cartilages.
  • Orbital Openings
    • Each is present above and lateral to the anterior nasal aperture. It is quadrangular in shape and possesses four margins (supraorbital, infraorbital, lateral and medial).
    • Supraorbital margin
      • It is formed by the frontal bone.
      • The supraorbital notch (or foramen) is situated at the junction of the medial 1/3rd (rounded) and lateral 2/3rds (sharp) of the supraorbital margin.
      • The supraorbital notch transmits the supraorbital nerve and artery and a communicating vein between angular and superior ophthalmic veins.
    • Infraorbital margin
      • It is formed by maxilla medially and zygomatic bone laterally.
    • Lateral orbital margin
      • It is formed by the frontal process of the zygomatic bone below and the zygomatic process of the frontal bone above.
    • Medial orbital margin
      • It is formed by the frontal bone above and the lacrimal crest of the frontal process of the maxilla below.

2. Frontal Region

  • Superciliary arch
    • It is a curved elevation above the medial part of the supraorbital margin.
  • Glabella
    • It is the median elevation between two superciliary arches.
  • Nasion
    • It is the junction of internasal and frontonasal sutures.
    • Frontal eminence (frontal tuber)
    • It is a rounded elevation above each superciliary arch.

3. Maxillae

Each maxilla shows the following features:

  • Infraorbital Foramen
    • It is situated about 1 cm below the infraorbital margin.
    • Infraorbital nerve and vessels pass through the infraorbital foramen.
  • Incisive Fossa
    • It is situated above the incisor teeth.
  • Canine Eminence
    • It is produced by the root of the canine tooth.
  • Canine fossa
    • It is situated just lateral to canine eminence.
  • Frontal Process
    • It is sandwiched between the nasal bone and the lacrimal bone.
  • Zygomatic Process
    • It articulates with the zygomatic bone.
  • Alveolar Process
    • It bears the sockets for the upper teeth.

4. Zygomatic Bones

  • Each bone is situated below and lateral to the orbital opening.
  • It is marked by a foramen called zygo- maticofacial foramen.
  • Zygomaticofacial nerve traverses the zygomaticofacial foramen.

5. Mandible

  • It forms the lower facial skeleton. For details of the features please consult the description of individual bone.
  • It is situated just lateral to canine eminence.

Norma Frontalis Attachments

  1. Nasal Bone: Procerus
  2. Superciliary Arch: Corrugator supercilii
  3. Frontal process of maxilla.
    • The orbital part of orbicularis oculi (it is also attached to the nasal part of the frontal bone).
    • Medial palpebral ligament.
    • Levator babii superioris alaeque nasi.
  4. Between infraorbital margin and infra-orbital foramen: Levator labii superioris.
  5. Below the infraorbital foramen (to canine fossa): Levator anguli oris.
  6. Zygomatic bone just below the zygomaticofacial foramen: Zygomaticus minor.
  7. Lateral to zygomaticus minor: Zygomaticus major.
  8. Adjacent to nasal notch: Nasalis (transverse part above and alar part below).
  9. Incisive fossa.
    • Medially: Depressor septi
    • Laterally: Incisivus labii superioris.
  10. Alveolar process of maxilla opposite to molar teeth: Buccinator.
  11. Mandible: Please consult the description of individual bones.

Exterior Of The Skull Attachments On Skull Norma Frontalis

Norma Frontalis Applied Anatomy

1. In about 8% of adult skulls a remnant of the lower part of the suture between two halves of the frontal bone (metopic suture) may persist. This suture is sometimes confused for a fracture in the radiograph.

2. Superciliary arches are elevated ridges from the surface of bone and any injury in this region will cause laceration of the skin and severe bleeding.

3. Compression of supraorbital nerves causes nerve pain. This fact may be used by anaesthetists to determine the depth of anaesthesia.

4. If the fracture of the frontal bone involves an inner table forming the roof of the frontal sinus, then the air may enter the cranial cavity (aerocele) causing meningitis or brain abscess.

5. An impact on the nose directed in the anteroposterior plane will cause a depression of the nasal bridge due to fracture of nasal bones, frontal processes of maxillae and septal cartilage.

6. A force on the nasal bridge directed from the lateral aspect will result in a deviation of the nasal bridge to the opposite side.

7. Traumatic alteration in the shape of the nose because of fractures of nasal bones is of great clinical importance due to cosmetic reasons, especially in young females.

8. A severe impact on the nasal bridge may involve frontal processes of maxillae.

9. Mid-facial skeleton is commonly involved in facial injuries. It includes maxillae, zygomatic bones, nasal bones and most of the bones which form a nasal cavity.

10. Mid-facial skeleton receives adequate blood supply from periosteal arteries and, therefore, all the fragments of fractured bone retain a periosteal blood supply.

11. Fractures of maxillae and zygomatic bones show a constant pattern. Le Fort has classified such fractures into three types:

  • Le Fort 1 fracture (Guerin’s fracture): It shows fractures of the lower 3rd of the nasal septum, maxillae and lower 3rd of pterygoid plates.
  • Le Fort 2 fracture: It includes fractures of nasal bones, frontal processes of maxillae, lacrimal bones, ethmoid, vomer and pterygoid plates.
  • Le Fort 3 fracture: In this fracture facial skeleton is separated from the skull base. It involves upper parts of nasal bones, frontal processes of maxillae, ethmoid, lesser wings of sphenoid and roots of pterygoid plates.

12. Zygomatic bone is very commonly involved in cases of fractures of the middle 3rd of the face. Fracture of the frontal process of the zygomatic bone may occur in conjunction with a comminuted fracture of the orbital rim and frontal bone.

13. Any of the four margins of the orbit may fracture as an isolated fracture or in combination.

Exterior Of The Skull Common Fracture Of Maxillae And Other Bones Of Skull

Note: For applied anatomy of the mandible and other bones of norma frontalis, discussion on individual bones may be consulted.

Norma Occipitalis: Definition, Sutures, Features and Anatomy

Norma Occipitalis

Norma Occipitalis Definition

When the skull is observed from the posterior aspect, it is known as norma occipitalis.

Norma Occipitalis Shape

Norma occipitalis is convex upwards and flat below.

Norma Occipitalis Bones

The following bones contribute to the norma occipitalis.

  1. Parietal bones (paired).
  2. Squamous part of occipital bone (unpaired).
  3. Mastoid parts of temporal bones (paired).

Norma Occipitalis Sutures

1. Posterior Part Of Sagittal Suture

2. Lambdoid Suture

  • It is between the two parietal bones and the occipital bone.
  • The lower end of the lambdoid suture meets with the mastoid portion of the temporal bone at a point which forms the junction of occipitomastoid and parietomastoid sutures.

3. Occipitomastoid Suture

It is situated between the occipital bone and the mastoid part of the temporal bone.

4. Parietomastoid Suture

It is situated between the parietal bone and the mastoid part of the temporal bone.

Norma Occipitalis Features

1. External Occipital Protuberance

  • It is a midline protuberance on the lower part of norma occipitalis.
  • It marks the junction of the head and neck posteriorly.
  • Inion is the most prominent point of external occipital protuberance.
  • Trapezius originates from the upper part of the external occipital protuberance.
  • Ligamentum nuchae is attached to the lower part of this protuberance.

2. Superior Nuchal Lines

  • These are curved ridges passing laterally from the external occipital protuberance.
  • These form the junction of head and neck posteriorly.
  • The trapezius originates from the medial 1/3rd of the superior nuchal line.
  • The Sternocleidomastoid is inserted on the lateral part of the superior nuchal line.
  • Splenius capitis is also inserted on the lateral part of this line below the attachment of the sternomastoid.

3. Highest Nuchal Lines

  • These are situated about a ‘cm’ above the superior nuchal lines.
  • The epicranial aponeurosis is attached to their medial parts.
  • The occipital belly of occipitofrontalis originates on each side from its lateral 2/3rd.

4. Mastoid Foramen

  • It is located near the occipitomastoid suture.
  • It opens internally into the sigmoid sulcus.
  • The following structures transverse through it:
  • Meningeal branch of occipital artery.
  • Emissary vein.

5. Occipital Point

  • It is situated in the midline a little above the inion.
  • It is farthest from the glabella.

Exterior Of The Skull The Skull Norma Occipitalis

Norma Occipitalis Applied anatomy

Craniostenosis is a condition in which there is premature closure of the cranial sutures.

  1. When lambdoid and coronal sutures are involved, the skull grows vertically leading to the tower skull.
  2. The squamous part of the occipital bone is prone to both fissured and depressed fractures.
  3. A crack in the inner table of the squamous part of the occipital bone may damage the large diploic vein and produce a small epidural haematoma.
  4. Almost invariably fractures of the occipital squama in children are associated with rupture of the dura mater.
  5. A gap in the occipital squama is usually filled with tantalum or titanium due to a lack of regeneration in this part whose periosteum is devoid of a cambium layer.
  6. The inner table of cranial vault bones (including the squamous part of the occipital bone) is more brittle than the outer table, therefore, fractures are more extensive in the inner table.

Respiratory Diseases Short Essays

Diseases Of The Respiratory System Short Essays

Question 1. Complications of pneumonia

Answer:

Complications Of Pneumonia

Diseases Of The Respiratory System Complications Of Pneumonia

Question 2. Treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis

Answer:

Pulmonary Tuberculosis Principles

  • To administer multiple drugs
  • To add atleast 2 new drugs in case of failure
  • To provide safest and most effective therapy shortest period of time
  • To ensure compliance to treatment

Pulmonary Tuberculosis Drugs

  • Anti-tubercular drugs that are used for treating it are as follows:
  • Four or three drugs are choosen from the drugs meant for first-line treatment for new cases
  • Response to treatment is assessed by
    • Gain in body weight
    • Improved appetite
    • Improvement in general health – Fall in ESR
    • Conversion of sputum from positive to negative
  • Primary or secondary resistance to drugs may develop when patient consume the drugs in irregular dose or take the drugs irregularly
  • In such cases, second-line drugs are used
  • Drugs:
    • PAS (Paraminosalicyclic acid) – 5 g BID orally
    • Ethionamide – 0.75 -1 g/day orally
    • Capromycin – 0.75-1 g IM daily
    • Cycloserine – 0.75-1 g/ day orally
    • Ciprofloxacin – 500-750 mg BID orally
    • Ofloxacin – 400 mg BID

Diseases Of The Respiratory System Treatment Of Pulmonary Tuberculosis

Respiratory Diseases Short Notes

Question 3. Four causes of clubbing

Answer:

Clubbing:

  • Clubbing is enlargement of the distal segment of fingers and toes due to an increase in soft tissues

Clubbing Causes:

  1. Disorders of heart
    • Cyanotic heart disease
    • Subacute bacterial endocarditis
  2. Disorders of lung
    • Suppuration of lung
      • Bronchiectasis
      • Lung abscess
      • Suppurative pneumonia
    • Tumors of lung
      • Mesothelioma
      • Primary lung cancer
      • Metastatic lung cancer
  3. Disorder of GI tract and liver
    • Inflammatory bowel disease
      • Regional ileitis
      • Ulcerative colitis
      • Malabsorption syndrome
    • Cirrhosis of liver
    • Malignancy of liver
  4. Hereditary or idiopathic

Read And Learn More: General Medicine Question and Answers

Question 4. Mantouxtest
(or)
Tuberculin test

Answer:

Mantouxtest

  • Mantouxtest is a routinely used method for tuberculin testing

Mantouxtest Method:

  • 0.1 ml of purified protein derivative, PPD containing 5 TU( tuberculin unit) is injected intradermally into flexor ascept of forearm
  • It is given between layers of the skin
  • The site is examined after 48-72 hours for induration

Result:

Diseases Of The Respiratory System Mantoux Test Or Tubercullin Test Result

Mantouxtest Significance:

Diseases Of The Respiratory System Mantoux Test Or Tubercullin Test Significance

Question 5. Lung abscess

Answer:

Lung Abscess

  • Lung abscess is collection of purulent material in a localised necrotic area of lung parenchyma

Etiopathogenesis:

  1. Infection without obstruction
    • Aspiration of nasopharyngeal contents
    • Involvement of various organisms like staphylococcus, Kleibsella, gram-negative and anaerobic organisms
    • Formation of abscess
    • Metastatic spread of infection
  2. Obstruction with or without infection
    • Bronchus obstruction due to tumor, foreign body, lymph node
    • Bronchial collapse
    • Abscess formation

Lung Abscess Clinical Features:

  • High-grade fever with chills and rigors
  • Pleuritic chest pain
  • Dry cough
  • Presence of copious purulent discharge
  • Haemoptysis
  • Weight loss, anorexia
  • Empysema

common respiratory disorders short essay

Question 6. Dyspnoea

Answer:

Dyspnoea Definition:

  • Dyspnoea is abnormal and uncomfortable breathing which makes the patient aware of it

Etiology:

  1. Cardiac causes
    • Cyanotic congenital heart disease
    • Left ventricular failure
    • Systemic hypertension
    • Chronic thromboembolism
  2. Pulmonary
    • Obstructive diseases
      • Bronchial asthma
      • Bronchiectasis
      • COPD
    • Parenchymal lung diseases
      • Acute pneumonia
    • Pulmonary vascular diseases
      • Thromboembolism
    • Respiratory muscle diseases
      • Severe kyphoscoliosis
  3. Cardiopulmonary’causes
    • Corpulmonale
  4. Others
    • Metabolic acidosis
    • Carbon monoxide poisoning
    • Severe anaemia

Dyspnoea Types:

Diseases Of The Respiratory System Dyspnoea Types

Question 7. Bronchodilators

Answer:

Bronchodilators:

  • Various bronchodilators are
  1. Sympathomimetics
    • Adrenaline
    • Ephedrine
    • lsoprenaline
    • Salbutamol
    • Terbutaline
  2. Methylxanthines
    • Theophylline
    • Aminophylline
  3. Anticholinergics
    • Atropine
    • Methonitrate
    • Ipratropium bromide

Bronchodilators Actions:

  • Improves effectiveness of cough in clearing secretions by increasing surface velocity of airflow during cough

Question 8. Clinical signs of emphysema

Answer:

Clinical signs of emphysema

  • Emphysema means inflation or distension with air

EmphysemaTypes:

Diseases Of The Respiratory System Clinical Sign Of Emphysema

short answer on respiratory tract diseases

Question 10. Haematemesis- causes and investigations

Answer:

Haematemesis Definition:

  • Haematemesis is vomiting of blood

Haematemesis Causes:

  • Prolonged and vigorous retching
  • Irritation or erosion of the lining of the esophagus or stomach
  • Bleeding ulcer located in the stomach, duodenum, or oesophagus
  • Vomiting of ingested blood
  • Vascular malfunctions of the gastrointestinal tract
  • Tumours of the stomach or oesophagus
  • Radiation poisoning
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Gastritis
  • Peptic ulcer

Haematemesis Management:

  1. Minimal blood loss
    • Administration of proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole
    • Blood transfusion
  2. Significant blood loss
    • Resuscitation
    • Fluid and/or blood administration
    • Use of a cuffed endotracheal tube

Question 11. Aspiration pneumonia

Answer:

  • Aspiration pneumonia is the consolidation of the lung in which there is the continued destruction of parenchyma by the inflammatory cells leading to the formation of microabscesses

Aspiration Pneumonia Clinical Features:

  • High intermittent fever
  • Cough
  • Dyspnoea
  • Tachycardia
  • Restlessness
  • Perspiration
  • Weight loss
  • Digital clubbing

Aspiration Pneumonia Compiicatons:

  • Empyema
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Amyloidosis
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Septicaemia

Aspiration Pneumonia Treatment:

  • Oral amoxicillin 500 mg 8 hourly or
  • Cotrimoxazole 9960 mg 12 hourly or
  • Oral metronidazole 400 mg 8 hourly
  • Analgesic for pleuritic pain
  • Physiotherapy
  • Postural drainage for lung abscess

Respiratory Diseases The Breakdown Of Number Of Problems

viral respiratory infections short note

Question 12. BCG vaccination

Answer:

BCG vaccination

  • BCG vaccine was prepared by Calmette and Guerin
  • BCG vaccination is a live attenuated and freeze-dried vaccine

BCG vaccination Dose and Administration:

  • BCG vaccination Dose and Administration is available as a fresh liquid vaccine or in the form of freeze-dried vaccine
  • BCG vaccination Dose and Administration is given intradermally in a dose of 0.1 ml soon after birth

BCG vaccination Immune Response:

  • Induces a self-limited infection with multiplication and dissemination of the bacillus in different organs and production of small tubercles
  • BCG vaccination Immune Response gives rise to delayed hypersensitivity

BCG vaccination Complications:

  • Local abscess, indolent ulcer, keloid, confluent lesion, lupoid lesion
  • Regional enlargement and suppuration of draining lymph nodes
  • Systemic fever, mediastinal adenitis
  • Erythema nodosum

BCG vaccination Contraindications:

  • In patients with AIDS, eczema, pertussis, measles, and patient on steroids

Role of BCG:

  • Makes the disease milder
  • Prevents serious forms of disease

Diseases Of Blood And Lymphoreticular System Long Essays

Diseases Of Blood And Lymphoreticular System Long Essays

Question 1. Classify anemia and its diagnostic approach. 

Answer:

Anaemia  Classification

  1. Pathophysiologic:
    • Anaemia due to increased blood loss
      • Acute posthaemorrhagic anaemia
      • Chronic blood loss
    • Anemias due to impaired red cell production
      • Cytoplasmic maturation defects
        • Deficient Haem Synthesis: Iron deficiency anemia
        • Deficient Globin Synthesis: Thalassaemic syndromes
      • Nuclear maturation defects
        • Vitamin B12 and/or Folic Acid Deficiency: Megaloblastic anemia
      • Defects in stem cell proliferation and differentiation
        • Aplastic anemia
        • Pure red cell aplasia
      • Anemia of chronic disorders
      • Bone marrow infiltration
      • Congenital anaemia
    • Anemias due to increased red cell destruction (Haemolytic anemias).
      • Extrinsic (Extracorpuscular) red cell abnormalities
      • Intrinsic (Intracorpuscular) red cell abnormalities
  2. Morphologic:
    • Microcytic, hypochromic
    • Normocytic, normochromic
    • Macrocytic, normochromic
  3. Diagnosis:
    • Laboratory diagnosis of anemia includes
      • Peripheral blood smear
        • It shows
          • Variations in the size of RBCs-microcytic or macrocytic
          • Variations in the shape of RBCs poikilocytosis
          • Spherocytosisspindle shaped RBCs
          • Nucleated RBCs
          • Inadequate hemoglobin formation
          • Presence of HowellJolly bodies
          • Irregularly contracted red cells
    • Hemoglobin content
      • Hemoglobin content decreases in anemia
    • Red cell indices are used like MCV, MCH, MCHC
    • ESR estimation
    • Bone marrow aspiration
    • Leucocyte and platelet count
    • Reticulocyte count

diseases of blood long essay questions

Question 2. Describe the etiological factors, clinical features, and management of iron deficiency anemia,
(or)
Outline the causes of iron deficiency anemia and how to manage such a case
(or)
Classify anemia. Describe clinical features, diagnosis, and management of iron deficiency anemia
(or)
Enumerate causes of iron deficiency anemia. Describe its clinical features and findings in the peripheral blood smear of this condition and treatment

Answer:

Iron Deficiency Anaemia:

  • Iron Deficiency Anaemia is a chronic, microcytic, hypochromic anemia that occurs either due to inadequate absorption or excessive loss of iron from the body

Read And Learn More: General Medicine Question and Answers

Iron Deficiency Anaemia Causes:

  • Inadequate intake of iron in the diet
  • Malabsorption of iron due to diarrhea
  • Increased requirements in a growing child and pregnancy
  • Increased loss of iron due to injury, epistaxis, and peptic ulcer
  • Gastrotomy

Iron Deficiency Anaemia Clinical Features:

Diseases Of Blood And Lymphoreticular System Iron Deficiency Anaemia Diagnosis

Iron Deficiency Anaemia Diagnosis:

  • Serum iron and ferritin are low.
  • Total iron binding capacity is increased and Transferrin saturation is below 16%.
  • Stool examination for parasites and occult blood is useful.
  • Endoscopic and radiographic examination of the GI tract is needed to detect the source of bleeding.
  • Hematological findings: Examination of peripheral blood picture.
  • Size: Microcytic anisocytosis
  • Chromicity: Anisochromia is present.
  • Shape: Poikilocytosis is often present, a pear-shaped tailed variety of RBC, elliptical form common.
  • Reticulocytes: Present, either normal/reduced
  • Osmotic fragility: slightly decreased
  • ESR: Seldom elevated
  • Absolute value: MCV, MCH, and MCHC are reduced.

Bone Marrow Findings:

  • Marrow cellularity increased due to erythroid hypoplasia micronormoblast.
  • Marrow iron reduces reticuloendothelial iron stores and the absence of siderotic iron granules from developing normoblasts.

Bone Marrow Findings Management:

  • Iron supplement
  • Ferrous sulfate 300 mg 34 times/day for 6 months only
  • Iron sorbitol 1.5 mg/kg body weight given parentally

Question 3. Describe etiological factors, clinical features, and management of megaloblastic anemia

Answer:

Megaloblastic Anaemia:

  • Megaloblastic Anaemia is macrocytic anemia with megaloblasts in the bone marrow

Etiology:

  1. Inadequate dietary intake
  2. Malabsorption
    • Intrinsic factor deficiency
      • Pernicious anemia
      • Gastrectomy
      • Congenital lack of factor
    • Intestinal causes
      • Tropical sprue
      • Ileal resection
      • Crohn’s disease
    • Removal of B12 from the intestines
      • Bacterial proliferation in intestinal blind loop syndrome
      • Fish tapeworm infestation
    • Drugs, for example, PAS, neomycin

Megaloblastic Anaemia Clinical Features:

  • Anemia,
  • Glossitis,
  • Neurological manifestations numbness, paraesthesia, weakness, ataxia, and diminished reflexes.
  • Others mild jaundice, angular stomatitis, purpura, malabsorption, and anorexia.

Megaloblastic Anaemia Diagnosis:

  1. Blood Picture:
    • Hemoglobin concentration falls.
    • MCV and MCH increases
    • MCHC decreases/remains normal.
    • Reticulocyte count is low
    • Red blood cell blood smear demonstrates anisocytosis, poikilocytes, and the presence of macroovalocytes
    • Leucocytes’ total WBC count is less
    • Thrombocytes giant platelets are present.
  2. Bone Marrow Findings:
    • Marrow cellularity hypercellular bone marrow with decreased myeloid: erythroid ratio.
    • Erythropoiesis erythroid hyperplasia is due to characteristic megaloblastic erythropoiesis.
    • Megaloblasts are abnormal, large, nucleated erythroid precursors, having nuclear-cytoplasmic asynchrony. Nuclei are large, having fine reticular and open chromatin,
    • Abnormal mitosis may be seen in megaloblasts.
    • Marrow iron increases in the number and size of the iron granules in erythroid precursors. Iron in reticulum cells is increased.

Megaloblastic Anaemia Management:

  1. Vitamin B12 deficiency
    • Parenteral administration of hydroxocobalamin 1000 microgram twice a week during the first week
    • Followed by 1000 micrograms weekly for 6 weeks
    • Maintenance therapy includes hydroxocobalamin 1000 microgram intramuscular every 3 months for the rest of life
  2. Folate deficiency
    • A daily dose of 5 mg of folic acid as an initial dose
    • A dose of 5 mg of folic acid once a week as a maintenance dose

Lymphoreticular system disorders long essays

Question 4. Describe the differential diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia. Add a note on the treatment of pernicious anemia

Answer:

Differential Diagnosis Of Megaloblastic Anaemia:

  1. Iron deficiency anemia
    • Clinical Features:
      • Anaemia:
        • Usual symptoms are weakness, fatigue, dyspnoea on exertion, palpitations, pallor of skin, mucous membranes, and sclera.
        • Older patients may develop angina and congestive cardiac failure.
        • Womenmenorrhagia is a common symptom.
      • Epithelial tissue changes:
        • Nails (koilonychia or spoon-shaped nails)
        • Tongue (Atrophic glossitis)
        • Mouth (angular stomatitis)
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Gastritis
  4. Peripheral neuropathy
    • Numbness, paraesthesia, weakness, ataxia, diminished reflexes.

Treatment Of Pernicious Anaemia:

  • Parenteral administration of vitamin B12
  • Physiotherapy for neurologic deficits B Blood transfusion
  • Follow-up visits for early detection of cancer of the stomach
  • Corticosteroid therapy to improve gastric lesions

Question 5. Mention causes of aplastic anemia. Describe its clinical features, diagnosis, complications, and management.

Answer:

Aplastic Anemia

  • Aplastic anemia is characterized by
    • Anaemia
    • Leukopenia
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • Hypocellular bone marrow

Etiology:

  • Idiopathic
  • Secondary to drugs, viruses, pregnancy
  • Hereditary

Aplastic Anaemia Clinical Features:

  • Anaemia
  • Excessive tendency to bleed
  • Easy bruising
  • Epistaxis
  • Gum bleeding
  • Heavy menstrual flow
  • Petechiae
  • Predisposition to infections

Aplastic Anaemia Investigations:

  • Blood smear shows normocytic, microcytic anemia, decreased granulocytes, and platelet count
  • Chromosomal studies for inherited disorders

Aplastic Anaemia Complications:

  • Bleeding
  • Infection
  • Death within 6-12 months

Aplastic Anaemia Treatment:

  • Bone marrow transplantation
  • Immunosuppressive therapy
  • Packed red cell transfusions
  • Granulocytes transfusions

Question 6. Describe etiological factors, clinical features, and management of polycythemia vera

Answer:

Polycythaemia Vera:

  • Polycythaemia Vera is a clonal disorder characterized by increased production of all myeloid elements resulting in pinocytosis

Etiology:

  • Chromosomal abnormalities like 20q, trisomy 8 and 9p

Polycythaemia Vera Clinical Features:

  • Headache
  • Vertigo
  • Tinnitus
  • Visual disturbances
  • Increased risk of thrombosis
  • Increased risk of hemorrhages
  • Splenomegaly
  • Pruritis
  • Increased risk of urate stones and gout

Polycythaemia Vera Management:

  • Phlebotomyto reduce total blood cell count
  • Anticoagulant therapy to treat thrombosis
  • Chemotherapy to induce myelosuppression
  • Use of uricosuric drugs to treat hyperuricemia
  • Interferon-alpha

Hematological Disorders Long Essay

Question 7. Classify leukemias. Describe the clinical features and management of one of them
(or)
Classify leukemias. Outline clinical features and diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia
(or)
Describe the etiology, clinical features, and management of chronic myeloid leukemia

Answer:

Leukaemias Classification:

  1. Based on cell types predominantly involved.
    • Myeloid
    • Lymphoid.
  2. Based on the natural history of the disease:
    • Acute
    • Chronic.

WHO Classification Of Myeloid Neoplasm:

  1. Myeloproliferative Diseases:
    • Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), {Ph chromosome t(9;22) (q34;2), BCR/ABLpositive}
    • Chronic neutrophilic leukemia
    • Chronic eosinophilic leukemia/ hypereosinophilic syndrome
    • Chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis
    • Polycythaemia vera (PV)
    • Essential thrombocythaemia (ET)
    • Chronic myeloproliferative disease, unclassifiable
  2. Myelodysplastic/Myeloproliferative Diseases:
    • Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)
  3. Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS):
    • Refractory anemia (RA)
    • Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts (RARS)
    • Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD)
    • RCMD with ringed sideroblasts (RCMDRS)
    • Refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB1)
    • RAEB2
    • Myelodysplastic syndrome unclassified (MDSU)
    • MDS with isolated del 5q
  4. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML):
    • AML with recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities
      • AML with t(8;21) (q22;q22)
      • AML with abnormal bone marrow eosinophils {inv (16) (p13q22)}
      • Acute promyelocytic leukaemia {t(15;17) (q22;q12)}
      • AML with 11q23 abnormalities (MLL)
    • AML with multilineage dysplasia
      • With prior MDS
      • Without prior MDS
      • AML and MDS, therapy-related
      • Alkylating agent related
      • Topoisomerase type 2 inhibitor-related
      • Other types
    • AML, not otherwise categorized
      • AML, minimally differentiated
      • AML without maturation
      • AML with maturation
      • Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (AMML)
      • Acute monoblastic and monocytic leukemia
      • Acute erythroid leukemia
      • Acute megakaryocytic leukemia
      • Acute basophilic leukemia
      • Acute panmyelosis with myelofibrosis
      • Myeloid sarcoma
  5. Acute Biphenotypic Leukaemia

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia:

  • Etiology:
    • It is a myeloproliferative disorder.
    • Occurs as a result of the malignant transformation of pluripotent stem cells leading to the accumulation of a large number of immature leukocytes in the blood.
    • Radiation exposure and genetic factors have been implicated in the development of CML

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia Clinical Features:

  • Onset is usually slow, initial symptoms are often nonspecific. g: weakness, pallor, dyspnoea, and tachycardia.
  • Symptoms due to hypermetabolism such as weight loss, anorexia, and night sweats.
  • Splenomegaly is almost always present and is frequently massive. In some patients, it may be associated with acute pain due to splenic infarction.
  • Bleeding tendencies such as bruising, epistaxis, menorrhagia, and hematomas may occur.
  • Visual disturbance, neurologic manifestations.
  • Juvenile CML is more often associated with lymph node enlargement than splenomegaly.

Peripheral Blood Picture:

  1. Leucocyte count is elevated often > 1,00,000 cells/1.
  2. Circulating cells are predominantly neutrophils, metamyelocytes, and myelocytes but basophils and eosinophils are also prominent.
  3. The typical finding is an increased number of platelets (thrombocytosis).
  4. Anaemia is usually of moderate degree and is normocytic, normochromic in type. Normoblasts may be present occasionally.
  5. A small portion of myeloblasts usually <5% are seen.

Bone Marrow Examination:

  1. Cellularity Hyper is cellular with total/partial replacement of fat spaces by proliferating myeloid cells.
  2. Myeloid cells Myeloblasts are only slightly increased.
  3. Erythropoiesis Normoblasts but there is a reduction in erythropoietic cells.
  4. Megakaryocytes are Conspicuous but are usually smaller in size than normal.
  5. Increase in number of phagocytes.

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia Management:

  • Imatinib oral therapy
  • Allogenic bone marrow transplantation
  • Interferon-alpha
  • Chemotherapy drugs used are busulfan, cyclophosphamide, and hydroxyurea

long answer questions on blood diseases

Question 8. Mention various types of diagnostic criteria and complications of leukemia, outline the significance of the system disorder in dental practice

Answer:

Complications Of Leukemia:

  • Infections
  • Clogging in blood vessels
  • Stroke
  • Impaired bodily functions
  • Development of other cancers like
    • Kaposi sarcoma
    • Melanoma
    • Lung cancer
    • Stomach cancer
    • Throat cancer
  • Death

Question 9. Describe etiological factors, clinical features, and management of eosinophilia

Answer:

Eosinophilia: An increase in the number of eosinophilic leukocytes is referred to as eosinophilia.

The Causes Of Eosinophilia Are As Follows:

  1. Allergic disorders: Bronchial asthma, urticaria, drug hypersensitivity
  2. Parasitic infestations: Trichinosis, echinococcosis, intestinal parasitism.
  3. Skin diseases: Pemphigus, dermatitis herpetiformis, erythema parasitism.
  4. Certain malignancies: Hodgkin’s disease and some non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas.
  5. pulmonary infiltration which is eosinophilia syndrome
  6. Irradiation.
  7. Miscellaneous disorders: Sarcoidosis, rheumatoid arthritis, polyarteritis nodosa.

Eosinophilia Clinical Features:

  • Dyspnoea
  • Orthopnoea
  • Wheezing
  • Cough with mucoid expectoration
  • Chest pain

Eosinophilia Management:

  • Diethvlcarbamazine 2 mg/kg three times a day for 2 weeks
  • Antihistamines are given to treat allergic reactions

Question 10. Describe oral manifestations of hematological disorders. How would you treat a case of agranulocytosis

Answer:

Hematological Disorders:

  1. Disorders Due To Vascular Disorders:
    • OslerWeberRendu disease
    • Inherited disorders of the connective tissue matrix
    • Acquired vascular bleeding disorders
  2. Disorders Due To Platelet Disorders:
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • Thrombocytosis
    • Disorders of platelet functions
  3. Coagulation Disorders:
    • Hemophilia A
    • Hemophilia B
    • Von Willebrand disease
  4. Disorders due to Fibrinolytic defects
  5. Disseminated intravascular coagulation, DIC

Hematological Disorders Oral Manifestations:

  • Gingivasevere hemorrhage
  • Soft tissue hematoma formation
  • Jaw recurrent subperiosteal hematoma
  • Tumourlike malformation
  • Teethhigh caries index
  • Severe periodontal disease
  • Oropharyngeal bleeding
  • Severe bleeding at the injection site

Treatment Of Agranulocytosis:

  • Removal of the offending agent
  • Transfusion of red cell constituent when hemoglobin is less than 10 gm/dl
  • Antibiotics to control septicemia
  • Combination of drugs
  • Administration of granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factors
  • Dental management for ulcers5% dyclonine and 5% Benadryl mixed with magnesium hydroxide or Kaolin with pectin

Question 11. How will you investigate a case of bleeding diathesis? Mention some of the dental considerations

Answer:

Bleeding Diathesis Investigations:

  1. Investigations Of Disordered Vascular Hemostasis
    • Bleeding time
      • It is based on the principle of formation of a hemostatic plug following a standard incision on the ulnar aspect of the forearm and the time from incision to when bleeding stops is measured
      • Normal 3-8 minutes
    • Hess capillary resistance test
      • This test is done by tying the sphygmomanometer cuff to the upper arm and raising the pressure in it between diastolic and systolic for 5 minutes
      • After deflation, the number of petechiae appearing in the next 5 minutes in a 3 cm2 area over the cubital fossa is counted
      • The presence of more than 20 petechiae is considered a positive test
  2. Investigation Of Blood Coagulation
    • Screening test
      • Whole blood coagulation time
        • The estimation of whole blood coagulation time done by various capillary and tube methods
        • Normal value 49 minutes
      • Activated partial thromboplastin time (PTTK)
        • This test is used to measure the intrinsic system factors as well as factors common to both intrinsic and extrinsic factors
        • One stage of prothrombin time measures the extrinsic system factor VTT as well as factors in the common pathway
    • Special tests
      • Coagulation factor assays
        • These are based on the results of PTTK or prothrombin time tests
      • Quantitative assays
        • Done by immunological and other chemical methods

Bleeding Diathesis Dental Considerations:

  • It is essential to prevent accidental damage to the oral mucosa when carrying out any procedure in the mouth
  • Blood loss can be controlled locally with direct pressure or periodontal dressings with or without topical antifibrinolytic agents
  • Patients with bleeding disorders can be given dentures as long as they are comfortable
  • Fixed and removable orthodontic appliances may be used along with regular preventive advice and hygiene therapy
  • Endodontic treatment is generally low risk for patients with bleeding disorders
  • Aspirin should not be used.

Diseases Of Blood And Lymphoreticular System Reduced inflammation

Lymphatic System Diseases Essay

Question 12. Classify bleeding and coagulation disorders. Write clinical features, diagnosis, complications, and management of hemophilia.

Answer:

Bleeding And Coagulation Disorders Classification:

  1. Disorders due to vascular disorders
    • OslerWeberRendu disease
    • Inherited disorders of the connective tissue matrix
    • Acquired vascular bleeding disorders
  2. Disorders due to platelet disorders
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • Thrombocytosis
    • Disorders of platelet functions
  3. Coagulation disorders
    • Hemophilia A
    • Hemophilia B
    • Von Willebrand disease
  4. Disorders due to fibrinolytic defects
  5. Disseminated intravascular coagulation, DIC

Hemophilia A:

  • Hemophilia A is an inherited disorder of factor 8 deficiency

Hemophilia A Clinical Features:

  • Initially diagnosed in infancy Males are commonly affected
  • Characterized by easy bruising
  • Prolonged bleeding after trauma
  • Bleeding into subcutaneous tissue
  • Hematoma formation
  • Epistaxis
  • Gastric hemorrhage
  • Recurrent hemarthrosis
  • Osteoporosis
  • Intracranial hemorrhage
  • Hematuria

Hemophilia A Oral Manifestations:

  • Gingivasevere hemorrhage
  • Soft tissue hematoma formation
  • Jawrecurrent subperiosteal hematoma
  • Tumourlike malformation
  • Teethhigh caries index
  • Severe periodontal disease
  • Oropharyngeal bleeding
  • Severe bleeding at the injection site

Hemophilia A Diagnosis:

  • Bleeding time normal
  • Prothrombin time normal
  • Platelet count normal
  • Activated partial thromboplastin time prolonged
  • Specific factor 8 assay

Hemophilia A Complications:

  • Excessive blood loss
  • Bleeding in the brain
  • Long-term joint problems
  • Abnormal thrombosis and clot formation

Hemophilia A Management:

  • Replacement therapy by the use of fresh frozen plasma
  • Administration of factor 8
  • Prevention of complications by the use of a synthetic analog of antidiuretic ldeamino8darginine vasopressin
  • Genetic counseling to prevent inheritance

Hematology long questions and answers

Question 13. Describe etiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations, and management of hemophilia B

Answer:

Hemophilia B

Etiology:

  • Hemophilia B is an inherited 10linked disease due to a reduction in plasma factor 9 level
  • Hemophilia B is due to aberration in the factor 9 gene

Hemophilia B Clinical Features:

  • Prolonged bleeding during circumcision
  • Prolonged bleeding after surgical procedures
  • Prolonged bleeding from cuts
  • Excessive bruising
  • Excessive and prolonged epistaxis
  • Blood in urine and feces
  • Internal bleeding causing pain and swelling
  • Bleeding in the skull after childbirth
  • Spontaneous bleeding

Hemophilia B Investigations:

  • Factor 9 test
  • Activated partial thromboplastin time
  • Prothrombin time
  • Fibrinogen test

Hemophilia B Management:

  • Factor 9 injections
  • Application of desmopressin acetate to small wounds

Developmental Disorders Short Question And Answers

Oral Medicine Developmental Disorders Short Answers

Question 1. Causes of angular cheilitis.

Answer:

Causes Of Angular Cheilitis

  • Micro-organisms- Candida albicans, staphylococci, and streptococci
  • Mechanical Factors:
    • Overclosure of jaws in edentulous patients
    • Nutritional deficiency:
    • Due to Riboflavin
    • Folate deficiency
    • Iron deficiency
    • General protein deficiency
  • Diseases Of The Skin:
    • Atopic dermatitis
    • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Other Factors
    • Hypersalivation
    • Down’s syndrome
    • Large tongue
    • Presence of developmental sinus

Question 2. Concrescence.

Answer:

Concrescence

Concrescence is the union of the roots of two or more adjoining teeth due to the deposition of cementum

Etiology:

  • Traumatic injury
  • Crowding of teeth
  • Hypercementosis

Concrescence Clinical Features:

  • It is an acquired defect
  • It occurs in both erupted or unerupted teeth
  • There is no sex predilection
  • Union or fusion does not occur between the enamel, dentin, or pulp of the involved teeth
  • The union mostly occurs between two teeth, however, there may be a union between more than two teeth
  • Permanent maxillary molars are usually affected
  • It can occur between the normal molar and supernumerary molar
  • It rarely involves deciduous dentition
  • The condition is frequently seen in those areas of the dental arch where the roots of the neighboring teeth lie close to each other

Concrescence Significance:

  • Concrescence may complicate extraction

Read And Learn More: Oral Medicine Question and Answers

Question 3. Taurodontism.

Answer:

Taurodontism

  • Taurodontism is a peculiar developmental condition in which the crown of the tooth is enlarged at the expense of its roots

Taurodontism Pathogenesis:

  • Taurodontism occurs due to failure of the Hertwig’s Epithelial root sheath to invaginate at the proper horizontal level

Taurodontism Clinical Features:

  • Taurodontism involves both the sex
  • Taurodontism commonly affects multi-rooted permanent molar teeth and sometimes premolar
  • Taurodontism rarely occurs in primary dentition
  • Taurodontism was relatively common in Neanderthal men
  • The affected tooth exhibits an elongated pulp chamber with rudimentary roots
  • The teeth are usually rectangular in shape with mini¬mum constriction at the cervical area
  • The furcation area of the teeth is more apically placed
  • The teeth often have greater apical-occlusal height
  • Clinically the teeth exhibit certain morphological changes

Taurodontism Associated Syndrome:

  • Down’s syndrome
  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • Poly X syndrome

Taurodontism Treatment:

  • No treatment required

Question 4. Four Causes of Macroglossia.

Answer:

  • Congenital Or Developmental
    • Mongolism
    • Lingual thyroid
  • Inflammatory
    • Syphilis
    • Ludwig’s angina
    • Typhoid
    • Tuberculosis
    • Infected wound
  • Neoplasm
    • Neurofibromatosis
    • Lymphangioma
  • Systemic
    • Pellagra
    • Down’s syndrome
    • Acromegaly
    • Uremia
    • Amyloidosis
    • Diabetes
    • Scurvy
    • Hurler’s syndrome

Question 5. Bald tongue/ Differential diagnosis of the bald tongue.

Answer:

  • Congenital
    • Familial dysplasia
    • Epidermolysis bullosa
    • Endocrine candidiasis
  • Developmental
    • Geographic tongue
    • Median rhomboid glossitis
    • Central papillary atrophy
  • Chronic Trauma
  • Nutritional Deficiency
    • Pellagra
    • Riboflavin
    • Conditional deficiency
  • Medication
    • Antibiotic
    • Cancer chemotherapy
  • Peripheral Vascular Disease
  • Chronic Candidiasis
  • Tumor
    • Squamous cell carcinoma
    • Epidermoid carcinoma
  • Miscellaneous
    • Diabetes mellitus
    • Oral submucous fibrosis

Question 6. Supernumerary teeth.

Answer:

Supernumerary Teeth

  • The presence of any extra tooth in the dental arch in addition to the normal series of teeth is called supernumer¬ary teet
  • Mode Of Formation:
    • It may develop either from an accessory tooth bud in the dental lamina
    • It may develop due to the splitting of regular normal tooth bud during the initial phase of odontogenesis

Supernumerary Teeth Clinical Features:

  • It can occur in both the sex
  • It may resemble the corresponding tooth
  • However, most of the teeth exhibit a conical shape
  • They may be either erupted or impacted

Supernumerary Teeth Clinical Features

Supernumerary Teeth Types:

  • Mesiodens- Located between two upper central incisors
  • Distomolars- Located on the distal aspect of the regular molar teeth
  • Paramolars- They are located either in the buccal or the lingual aspect of the normal molars
  • Extra lateral incisors- they are more common in the maxillary arch

Supernumerary Teeth Significance:

  • Supernumerary Teeth may produce crowding or malocclusion
  • They may cause cosmetic problems
  • They may be directly or indirectly responsible for increased caries incidence and periodontal problems
  • The dentigerous cyst may sometimes develop from an impacted supernumerary teeth

Supernumerary Teeth Treatment:

  • They are mostly non-functional and they should be extracted
  • Impacted supernumerary teeth should be removed surgically since they interfere with normal tooth alignment or can develop some pathology

Question 7. Dilaceration.

Answer:

Dilaceration

  • Dilaceration refers to an angulation or sharp bend or curve anywhere along the root portion of the tooth
  • Pathogenesis
    • Trauma to partially calcified tooth germ may cause displacement of the hard calcified crown portion
    • It may occur as a result of continued root formation during curved or tortuous path
    • Idiopathic cause

Dilaceration Clinical Features:

  • Dilaceration may involve both the dentition
  • There is no sex predilection
  • Dilaceration is observed at the coronal portion of the teeth

Dilaceration Treatment:

  • Such teeth are extracted as they are prone to fracture

Question 8. Fordyce’s granules.

Answer:

Etiology:

  • It is a developmental variation
  • It is caused by an accumulation of sebaceous glands in the submucosal connective tissue

Fordyce’s Granules Features:

  • Multiple, small, white to yellow nodules
  • Usually located on the Buccal mucosa, occasionally on the labial mucosa
  • Commonly bilateral
  • It is a painless and persistent lesion

Fordyce’s Granules Treatment:

  • No treatment is required

Question 9. Name papillae of the tongue.

Answer:

  • Fungiform
    • They are round in shape
    • They are situated over the anterior surface of the tongue near the tip
    • The number of taste buds in each is moderate
  • Filiform
    • They are small and conical in shape
    • They are situated over the dorsum of the tongue
    • They contain less number of taste buds
  • Circumvalate papillae
    • They are large structures present on the posterior part of the tongue
    • They are many in number
    • They are arranged in the shape of ‘V’
    • They contain up to 100 tastebuds

Question 10. Natal teeth.

Answer:

Natal Teeth

  • Natal Teeth are the teeth that are present at the time of birth

Etiology:

  • Hereditary- superior position of the tooth bud
  • Hormonal influence

Natal Teeth Clinical Features:

  • Teeth may appear conical or may be normal in size and shape
  • They may be opaque or yellow-brownish in color
  • They are hypermobile
  • Teeth appear to be attached to a small mass of soft tissue
  • There may be a danger of aspiration of the teeth
  • Riga fede ulcer- develops on the ventral surface of the tongue due to sharp edges of the incisors
  • It leads to interference with the proper suckling and feeding activities

Natal Teeth Associated Syndromes:

  • Ellis van Creveld syndrome

Natal Teeth Management:

  • Extraction- to avoid interference with feeding activities
  • Rounding of the sharp angles
  • Retaining of the tooth- if it doesn’t create any problem

Question 11. Median rhomboid glossitis

Answer:

Median Rhomboid Glossitis

  • Median Rhomboid Glossitis is an asymptomatic, elongated, erythematous patch of atrophic mucosa on the middorsal surface of the tongue

Median Rhomboid Glossitis Clinical Features:

  • Age: it is seen in adults
  • Sex: it is common in males

Median Rhomboid Glossitis Site:

  • Anterior to the foramen cecum and circumvallate papillae
  • In the midline on the dorsum of the tongue
  • It starts as a narrow mildly erythematous area located along the median fissure of the tongue
  • The lesion is asymptomatic
  • It enlarges slowly often remaining unnoticed by the patient
  • The fully developed lesion appears as a diamond or lozenge-shaped area devoid of the papilla
  • The color of the lesion varies from pale pink to bright red
  • There is the presence of a white halo
  • The surface is usually smooth, flat or slightly raised
  • It is sometimes fissured or lobulated
  • The lesion exhibits an erythematous and nodular hyperplasia
  • Some patients may develop similar lesions over the midline of the palate
  • It may cause slight soreness or burning sensation
  • It may regress spontaneously

Median Rhomboid Glossitis Management:

  • Antifungal and antiseptic agents are used during irrita¬tion

Question 12. Etiology of median rhomboid glossitis.

Answer:

  • Developmental
    • Persistent tuberculum impar
  • Fungal infection
    • Candida albicans is many times found in the lesion
  • Metabolic
    • It is more common in diabetic patients than in nondiabetic patients

Question 13. Mesiodens.

Answer:

Mesiodens

  • They are the most common type of supernumerary teeth
  • Mesiodens is located between the two maxillary central incisors

Mesiodens Mode Of Formation:

  • Mesiodens may develop either from an accessory tooth bud in the dental lamina
  • Mesiodens may develop due to the splitting of regular normal tooth bud during the initial phase of odontogenesis

Mesiodens Clinical Features:

  • Mesiodens can occur in both the sex
  • Mesiodens may resemble the corresponding tooth
  • However, most of the teeth exhibit a conical shape
  • They may be either erupted or impacted

Mesiodens Significance:

  • Mesiodens may produce crowding or malocclusion
  • They may cause cosmetic problems
  • They may be directly or indirectly responsible for increased caries incidence and periodontal problems
  • The dentigerous cyst may sometimes develop from impacted supernumerary teeth

Mesiodens Treatment:

  • They are mostly nonfunctional and they should be ex¬tracted
  • Impacted supernumerary teeth should be removed surgically since they interfere with normal tooth alignment or can develop some pathology

Question 14. Black hairy tongue.

Answer:

Etiology:

  • Formation of excess keratin causes elongation of the filiform papillae on the dorsal tongue
  • May be infected with Candida albicans

Black Hairy Tongue Features:

  • Elongation of the filiform papillae
  • White to yellow in color
  • Located on the posterior dorsal tongue
  • Patients often have poor oral hygiene
  • Patients may complain of bad taste

Black Hairy Tongue Treatment:

  • Elimination of predisposing factors
  • Cleaning the dorsal tongue with a soft toothbrush
  • Treat Candidiasis if present

Question 15. Ankyloglossia.

Answer: Ankyloglossia

  • Ankyloglossia is a result of a short, tight, thick, lingual frenulum

Ankyloglossia Classification:

  • Based On The Anatomical Appearance
    • Type 1: Frenulum attached to the tip of the tongue in front of the alveolar ridge in the low lip sulcus
    • Type 2: Attaches 2-4 mm behind tongue tip and attaches on the alveolar ridge
    • Type3: Attaches to mid-tongue and middle of the floor of the mouth, usually tighter and less elastic the tip of the tongue appears “heart-shaped”
    • Type 4: Attaches against the base of the tongue, is shiny and very inelastic
  • Based On The Distance Of The Insertion Of The Lingual Frenum To The Tip Of The Tongue
    • Normal: 16 mm
    • Class 1 [Mild]: 12-16 mm
    • Class 2 [Moderate]: -12 mm
    • Class 3[Severe]: 4- mm
    • Class 4 [Complete]: 0-4 mm

Ankyloglossia Significance:

  • In majority of the cases, it resolves spontaneously
  • They are asymptomatic
  • It may lead to
    • Difficulty in breastfeeding, articulation problems
    • Gingival recession
    • Open bite
    • Abnormal facial development

Ankyloglossia Treatment:

  • Frenectomy
  • Frenuloplasty

Question 16. Angular cheilitis

Answer:

Etiology:

  • It occurs at the angle of the mouth among persons having deep commissural folds secondary to the overclosure of the mouth
  • It can occur among persons with lip-licking habits, den¬ture wearing, or deficiency of riboflavin, vitamin Bn, and folic acid

Angular Cheilitis Clinical Features:

  • The infection starts due to the colonization of fungi in the skin folds following the deposition of saliva due to re¬peated lip-licking
  • Patients often have soreness, erythema, and Assuring at the corner of the mouth
  • In some cases, it may extend over the adjacent skin sur¬faces

Question 17. Talon’s cusp.

Answer:

Talon’s Cusp

  • Talon’s Cusp is an anomalous projection from the lingual aspect of the maxillary and mandibular permanent incisors

Talon’s Cusp Clinical Features:

  • This anomalous cusp arises from the cingulum area of the tooth which extends to the incisal edge as a prominent T-shaped projection
  • It is usually an asymptomatic condition
  • In some cases, it may cause problems in esthetics
  • It may be susceptible to caries
  • It usually consists of normal-appearing enamel, dentin, and vital pulp tissue
  • Occasionally lingual pits develop on either side of the talon’s cusp, where it join the lingual surface of the tooth

Talon’s Cusp Associated Syndrome:

  • Rubinstein Taybi syndrome

Talon’s Cusp Treatment:

  • Restorative measures are carried out to prevent caries
  • When it interferes with occlusion, it is corrected with endodontic or restorative treatment

Question 18. Neonatal teeth.

Answer:

Neonatal Teeth

Neonatal Teeth are the teeth that are present within 30 days after the birth

Neonatal Teeth Etiology:

  • Hereditary- superior position of the tooth bud
  • Hormonal influence

Neonatal Teeth Clinical Features:

  • Teeth may appear conical or may be normal in size and shape
  • They may be opaque or yellow-brownish in color
  • They are hypermobile
  • Teeth appear to be attached to a small mass of soft tissue
  • There may be a danger of aspiration of the teeth
  • Riga fede ulcer- develops on the ventral surface of the tongue due to sharp edges of the incisors
  • It leads to interference with the proper suckling and feeding activities

Neonatal Teeth Associated Syndromes:

  • Ellis van Creveld syndrome

Neonatal Teeth Management:

  • Extraction- to avoid interference with feeding activities
  • Rounding of the sharp angles
  • Retaining of the tooth- if it doesn’t create any problem

Question 19. Fissured Tongue.

Answer:

Fissured Tongue Synonyms:

  • Scrotal tongue
  • Lingua plicata

Fissured Tongue Etiology:

  • Hereditary
  • Aging
  • Chronic trauma
  • Vitamin deficiency

Fissured Tongue Features:

  • It is seen in childhood
  • It becomes prominent with age
  • It exhibits multiple grooves or furrows of 2-6 mm depth
  • It is of varied patterns on the dorsal surface
  • Patients may rarely present with a burning sensation or soreness
  • Food debris may get lodged into the furrows and cause irritation

Fissured Tongue Associated Syndromes:

  • Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
  • Down syndrome

Fissured Tongue Management:

  • Advice the patient to use soft bristle brushes over the area
  • To cleanse the fissures on a regular basis

Question 20. Actinic cheilitis.

Answer:

Actinic Cheilitis

Actinic Cheilitis is a pre-malignant squamous cell lesion resulting from long-term exposure to solar radiation

Actinic Cheilitis Clinical Features:

  • Site: commonly occurs over the lower lip
  • Age and sex: common in adult males
  • Features:
    • There may be redness and edema over the area
    • The lips become dry and scaly
    • Tiny bleeding spots are seen
    • Gradually the scales become thick and horny
    • Vertical Assuring and crusting occur
    • There is a blurring of the margins
    • Vesicles are formed which rupture to form superficial erosions
    • Warty nodules may form There is the possibility of malignant transformation

Actinic Cheilitis Management:

  • Topical fluorouracil
    • Applied in 5% cone. For three times daily for 10 days
  • CO2 snow: used to remove superficial lesions
  • Vermillionectomy:
    • Vermillion borders are excised
  • Laser ablation- to vaporize Vermillion
  • Electrodesiccation- it leads to dehydration by the insertion of electrodes into the tissues.

Oral Medicine Developmental Disorders Viva Voce

  1. Micrognathia of the maxilla is due to a deficiency in the pre-maxillary area
  2. Ankyloglossia causes difficulty in articulation of 1, r, t, d,n, th, sh, and z
  3. Ghost teeth are due to defects in mineralization
  4. Ghost teeth are seen in regional odontodysplasia
  5. Shell teeth are seen in dentinogenesis imperfect
  6. Permanent molars are most commonly affected by taurodontism
  7. Torus mandibularis is commonly seen on the lingual surface of the mandible opposite to the premolar
  8. Mesiodens is the most common supernumerary teeth
  9. Deciduous mandibular second molar is the most common ankylosed teeth
  10. Commonly missing teeth are
    • Primary – maxillary and mandibular lateral inci¬sors
    • Permanent – third molar
  11. Bohn’s nodules are seen at the junction of the hard and soft palate
  12. Epstein pearls are seen along the median raphe of the hard palate
  13. Dental lamina cysts of newborn are seen on alveolar ridges
  14. False anodontia is due to multiple extracted teeth
  15. Pseudo anodontia is due to multiple unerupted teeth
  16. Infusion patient will have one tooth less than normal
  17. In germination, the patient has one tooth extra of normal

 

 

Periodontics Question and Answers

Periodontics, a vital branch of dentistry focused on the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of periodontal disease, as well as the placement of dental implants. This guide will provide you with essential questions and answers related to periodontics, helping both students and professionals in the field gain a deeper understanding of this important area of dental health.

What is Periodontics?

Periodontics is the specialty of dentistry that deals with the supporting structures of teeth, including gums, bone, and connective tissues. It encompasses various procedures aimed at maintaining oral health and preventing diseases that can lead to tooth loss.

Key Areas of Focus in Periodontics

  1. Periodontal Disease: Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatments for gum diseases such as gingivitis and periodontitis.
  2. Dental Implants: Exploring the process of placing dental implants as a solution for missing teeth.
  3. Gum Health: Importance of maintaining healthy gums through regular dental care and professional cleanings.

Periodontics Question and Answers