NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 What Does The Term Pan Regional Empire Mean

NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 What Does The Term Pan Regional Empire Mean

In the study of history, especially within the NCERT Class 7 curriculum, the term “pan-regional empire” pops up quite a bit. But what does it really mean? Essentially, it refers to empires that extend their influence and control over multiple regions, impacting various cultures, economies, and political systems. Understanding this concept helps us grasp the dynamics of historical power and its lasting effects on the world today.

The Term Pan Regional Empire Mean

  • Pan-regional empires span across multiple regions, not limited to a single territory.
  • These empires influence politics, culture, and economy in the regions they control.
  • Historical examples include the Mughals, Cholas, and Tughluqs, showcasing diverse impacts.
  • Cultural exchange is a hallmark of pan-regional empires, blending traditions and practices.
  • Studying these empires helps us understand the foundations of modern nation-states.

Defining Pan-Regional Empires

So, what exactly is a pan-regional empire? It’s a term you’ll run into in history, especially when studying empires that weren’t just local big shots, but had influence way beyond their immediate area. Think of it as an empire that’s gone global… well, ‘global’ for its time, anyway.

Characteristics Of Pan-Regional Empires

Okay, so how do you spot one of these pan-regional empires? Here are a few things to look for:

  • Large Territory: They control a big chunk of land, often made up of different regions with their own cultures and histories.
  • Strong Central Government: They need a solid government to keep everything together and enforce their rules across such a large area.
  • Economic Influence: They usually have a strong economy that affects other states around them, whether through trade, resources, or even just being a big market.

It’s important to remember that these empires weren’t always about conquering and controlling. Sometimes, their influence came from being a center of trade or culture, which drew other regions into their orbit.

Historical Examples of Pan-Regional Empires

When we talk about pan-regional empires, a few names pop up pretty quickly. The Mughal Empire is a classic example, but there are others too. Think about the Roman Empire, or even the Mongol Empire. They all had a huge impact on multiple regions, not just their own backyard.

Here’s A Quick Comparison:NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 What Does The Term Pan Regional Empire Mean Historical Examples of Pan Regional Empires

The Role of Culture in Pan-Regional Empires

Culture plays a big role in these empires. It’s not just about armies and taxes. Often, they spread their culture – their art, language, religion – to the regions they influence. This can happen through trade, migration, or even just the prestige of being part of a powerful empire. This cultural exchange can leave a lasting mark, even after the empire itself is gone.

The Significance of Pan-Regional Empires

NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 What Does The Term Pan Regional Empire Mean The Significance of Pan Regional Empires

Political Influence Across Regions

Pan-regional empires weren’t just about land; they were about power. Their influence extended far beyond their borders, shaping the political landscape of entire regions. They could dictate terms of trade, influence succession in neighboring states, and even redraw political boundaries.

Think of it like a giant chess game, with the empire making all the moves. This influence wasn’t always direct control, but rather a web of alliances, dependencies, and sometimes, just plain intimidation.

The ripple effects of their decisions could be felt for generations.

Economic Impact on Neighboring States

These empires weren’t just political behemoths; they were economic powerhouses too. Their vast resources and control over trade routes meant they could significantly impact the economies of neighboring states.

They could create economic dependencies, where smaller states relied on the empire for trade, resources, or even protection. This could lead to prosperity for some, but also exploitation and economic stagnation for others. It’s a complex relationship, with winners and losers.

Here’s a simple example of how trade might have been structured:NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 What Does The Term Pan Regional Empire Mean Economic Impact on Neighboring States

Cultural Exchange And Integration

Pan-regional empires were melting pots of culture. As they expanded, they brought together diverse populations, leading to a fascinating exchange of ideas, customs, and traditions.

This wasn’t always a peaceful process, but it often resulted in the integration of different cultures, creating new hybrid forms. Think of the spread of language, religion, and art. This cultural exchange could enrich the lives of people across the empire, but it could also lead to the suppression of local cultures in favor of the dominant one. The Mughals as a Pan-Regional Empire are a great example of this.

The legacy of these empires is complex. They left behind a mix of achievements and failures, prosperity and exploitation, cultural integration and suppression. Understanding their impact requires a nuanced perspective, recognizing both the positive and negative consequences of their rule.

Here are some common elements of cultural exchange:

  • Language
  • Religion
  • Art and Architecture
  • Cuisine

The Mughals As A Pan-Regional Empire

NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 What Does The Term Pan Regional Empire Mean The Mughals as a Pan Regional Empire

The Mughal Empire stands out as a prime example of a pan-regional empire in Indian history. Their influence stretched across a vast territory, impacting various aspects of life from politics to culture. It’s a great case study when trying to understand what this term really means.

Expansion Of The Mughal Empire

The Mughals didn’t just pop up overnight; their empire was built through strategic military campaigns and alliances. Starting from a relatively small area, they gradually expanded their control, incorporating diverse regions and people.

This expansion wasn’t always smooth, of course, and involved plenty of conflict and negotiation. By the time of emperors like Akbar, the empire was huge, encompassing much of the Indian subcontinent.

Cultural Contributions Of The Mughals

One of the most lasting legacies of the Mughals is their contribution to Indian culture. They weren’t just conquerors; they were also patrons of the arts, architecture, and literature. The fusion of Persian, Central Asian, and Indian styles resulted in a unique and vibrant cultural synthesis.

Think about the Taj Mahal, for example, or the development of Urdu as a new language. These are just a couple of examples of how the Mughals shaped the cultural landscape.

Administrative Innovations In The Mughal Era

The Mughals were also known for their administrative skills. They implemented a centralized system of governance, dividing the empire into provinces and establishing a uniform system of taxation. This wasn’t always popular, but it did help to create a more stable and efficient state. They also introduced new technologies and agricultural practices, which helped to boost the economy. It’s interesting to see how these administrative structures influenced later systems of governance in India.

The Mughal Empire’s success wasn’t just about military might; it was also about their ability to integrate diverse cultures and create a sense of shared identity. This is a key aspect of what makes them a pan-regional empire, rather than just a large kingdom.

Comparing Pan-Regional Empires

Differences Between Regional And Pan-Regional Empires

Okay, so what really sets a pan-regional empire apart from just a regular, run-of-the-mill regional one? Well, it’s all about scale and influence. A regional empire typically dominates a specific geographic area, maybe a river valley or a peninsula.

Think local. A pan-regional empire, on the other hand, stretches across multiple distinct regions, impacting diverse cultures and economies. It’s like comparing a local coffee shop to a massive, international chain. Here’s a quick breakdown:

  • Scope: Regional empires are localized; pan-regional empires are widespread.
  • Influence: Regional empires have limited impact beyond their borders; pan-regional empires exert broad influence.
  • Complexity: Pan-regional empires face greater administrative and logistical challenges.

Similarities Among Various Pan-Regional Empires

Even though empires like the Mughals, the Romans, and the Mongols existed in different times and places, they shared some surprising similarities. They all needed strong leadership, efficient administration, and a powerful military to maintain control.

They also tended to promote some level of cultural or economic integration to unify their vast territories. Think about it – you can’t rule a huge area if everyone’s fighting each other all the time. Some common threads include:

  • Centralized power structures.
  • Infrastructure development (roads, communication systems).
  • Standardized legal or administrative systems.
  • Promotion of trade and economic activity.

Lessons From Historical Pan-Regional Empires

What can we learn from these old empires? Quite a bit, actually. Studying their rise and fall can give us insights into things like governance, cultural exchange, and the challenges of managing diversity. For example, the problem of two emperors highlights the complexities of power dynamics.

It’s a reminder that even the most powerful empires are not invincible. They often collapse due to internal strife, economic problems, or external pressures. Understanding these patterns can help us better understand current global dynamics.

Pan-regional empires teach us that long-term success requires more than just military might. It demands effective governance, economic stability, and the ability to integrate diverse populations into a cohesive whole. Ignoring these factors often leads to decline and eventual collapse.

The Legacy of Pan-Regional Empires

Influence on Modern Nation-States

Pan-regional empires, though relics of the past, continue to shape the world we live in. Their influence is evident in the borders, political systems, and cultural landscapes of many modern nation-states. For example, the administrative structures and legal frameworks established by empires like the Romans or the Mughals often served as models for subsequent governments.

The concept of centralized authority, standardized laws, and efficient bureaucracy can be traced back to these historical entities. The lasting impact is undeniable.

Cultural Heritage And Identity

These empires weren’t just about political control; they were melting pots of culture. Think about the spread of languages, religions, and artistic styles across vast territories. This cultural exchange has left an indelible mark on the identities of people living in those regions today.

Many traditions, customs, and even culinary practices can be traced back to the era of pan-regional empires. It’s pretty wild to think about how much of our daily lives is influenced by things that happened centuries ago.

Continuing Impact On Global Relations

The dynamics of power and influence established by pan-regional empires still resonate in today’s global relations. The relationships between countries, the formation of alliances, and even the sources of conflict can often be understood in the context of historical imperial legacies.

For instance, the borders drawn by colonial powers continue to be a source of tension in some parts of the world. Understanding these historical roots is key to understanding current geopolitical realities.

The echoes of pan-regional empires are all around us, shaping our world in ways we might not always realize. From the food we eat to the laws we follow, their influence is woven into the fabric of modern society.

It’s a reminder that history is not just something that happened in the past; it’s an ongoing process that continues to shape our present and future.

Challenges Faced by Pan-Regional Empires

Internal Conflicts And Governance Issues

Running a huge empire isn’t easy, and pan-regional empires often struggled with keeping everyone happy. Think about it: different regions, different cultures, and different ideas about how things should be run. This could lead to a lot of infighting. One of the biggest challenges was balancing the needs of the central government with the desires of local leaders.NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 What Does The Term Pan Regional Empire Mean Economic Strain and Resource Management

  • Succession struggles: Who takes over when the leader dies?
  • Religious differences: Keeping the peace between different faiths.
  • Regional autonomy: How much power should local areas have?

Trying to manage all of this while also dealing with corruption and inefficiency? It’s a recipe for disaster. It’s like trying to juggle flaming torches while riding a unicycle – impressive if you can pull it off, but most of the time, something’s going to fall.

Resistance From Local Powers

Not everyone is thrilled about being part of a big empire. Local rulers often didn’t want to give up their power, and people didn’t always like being told what to do by some far-off emperor. This led to rebellions and resistance movements. Maintaining control required constant vigilance and often brutal suppression of dissent. The struggle against foreign oppression was a common theme.

  • Guerilla warfare: Small-scale attacks that wear down the empire.
  • Popular uprisings: People rising up against the government.
  • Alliance building: Local powers joining together to fight the empire.

Economic Strain And Resource Management

Empires need money to run, and pan-regional empires were no exception. Maintaining a large army, building infrastructure, and keeping the government running all cost a lot. Sometimes, the empire would overspend, leading to economic problems. Resource management was key, but often poorly executed.

Plus, think about the logistics of moving resources around such a vast area. It’s not like they had Amazon Prime back then! Getting food, materials, and money where they needed to be was a huge challenge. And if there was a famine or some other disaster? Things could get really bad, really fast.

Understanding The Concept In NCERT Class 7 History

Key Themes in NCERT Class 7 History

NCERT Class 7 History introduces young students to the medieval period of India, a time of significant change and the rise of various kingdoms. A key theme is understanding how empires expanded and interacted with different regions.

The textbook covers topics like the Delhi Sultanate, the Mughal Empire, and regional cultures, providing a foundation for understanding India’s diverse past. It also touches upon social and economic life, religious developments, and artistic achievements during this period.

How Pan-Regional Empires Are Presented

The concept of pan-regional empires is introduced through the study of empires like the Mughals. The textbook explains how these empires extended their influence over vast territories, integrating diverse cultures and administrative systems.

It highlights the strategies they used for expansion, governance, and maintaining control over their territories. The focus is on illustrating how these empires were not just about military conquest but also about establishing systems that could manage and benefit from the resources and cultures of different regions.

Importance of Studying Pan-Regional Empires

Studying pan-regional empires is important for several reasons:

  • It helps students understand the interconnectedness of different regions in India’s history.
  • It shows how political and economic systems evolved over time.
  • It provides insights into the cultural exchange and integration that occurred under these empires.

Understanding the rise and fall of pan-regional empires gives students a broader perspective on the forces that have shaped India’s identity and its place in the world. It encourages critical thinking about the legacies of these empires and their relevance to contemporary issues.

Our Look at Pan-Regional Empires

In summary, understanding pan-regional empires gives us a clearer picture of how power and culture spread across different areas. These empires, like the Mughals, didn’t just stick to one place; they reached out to influence many regions.

This kind of expansion often led to a mix of traditions, languages, and governance styles. It’s fascinating to see how these connections shaped societies and left lasting impacts. So, next time you hear about a pan-regional empire, think about the wide-reaching effects it had on the world around it.

Frequently Asked Questions

What Is A Pan-Regional Empire?

A pan-regional empire is a large empire that has influence over multiple regions or areas. It connects different cultures and people under one rule.

What Are Some Features Of Pan-Regional Empires?

Pan-regional empires often have a strong central government, a diverse population, and a mix of cultures. They also usually control trade routes and have significant military power.

Can You Name Some Historical Examples Of Pan-Regional Empires?

Yes! Some well-known examples include the Roman Empire, the Mughal Empire, and the Ottoman Empire. Each of these empires ruled over a wide area and influenced many cultures.

What Role Does Culture Play In Pan-Regional Empires?

Culture is very important in pan-regional empires. They often spread their own culture while also adopting elements from the regions they control, leading to a rich mix of traditions.

How Do Pan-Regional Empires Impact Neighboring Regions?

Pan-regional empires can greatly influence neighboring regions politically, economically, and culturally. They often create trade connections and promote cultural exchanges.

Why Is It Important To Study Pan-Regional Empires In History?

Studying pan-regional empires helps us understand how different cultures interact and how power dynamics work. It also shows us the impact of these empires on modern nations.

NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 Solutions For What Are The Difficulties Historians Face In Using Manuscripts

NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 Solutions For What Are The Difficulties Historians Face In Using Manuscripts

When studying history, especially for NCERT Class 7, understanding the challenges historians face with manuscripts is crucial. These documents, often handwritten, hold valuable insights into the past, but they come with a set of unique difficulties.

From errors introduced by scribes to the deterioration of materials over time, historians must navigate a complex landscape to piece together accurate historical narratives. This article explores these challenges in detail, shedding light on what historians must deal with when using manuscripts.

Class 7 History Chapter 1 Question Answer

Difficulties Historians Face In Using Manuscripts

  • Manuscripts often contain inconsistencies due to scribes’ errors.
  • Over time, the original meanings of texts can be lost or altered.
  • Access to manuscripts can be limited, complicating research efforts.
  • Understanding old scripts and historical context is a significant hurdle for historians.
  • Technological advancements are still catching up to the needs of manuscript analysis.

Challenges Of Handwritten Manuscripts

Inconsistencies In Texts

Okay, so imagine trying to piece together a story when every version you find is slightly different. That’s what historians deal with when using manuscripts. Because there was no printing press, everything was copied by hand. And you know how it goes with copying – things change.

A word here, a sentence there. It’s like playing a game of telephone, but with really old and important documents. These little changes add up over time, making it hard to know what the original author wrote. It’s a bit of a detective game, trying to figure out the most accurate version. This is why manual transcription is so important.

Errors Introduced By Scribes

Scribes weren’t perfect. They were human, just like us. And humans make mistakes. Sometimes they’d misread a word, or maybe they were just tired and skipped a line. These errors, however small, got copied along with the rest of the text, and then those errors got copied, and so on. It’s like a snowball effect of mistakes. So, historians have to be super careful when reading manuscripts, always on the lookout for potential errors that could change the meaning of the text. It’s a painstaking process, but it’s necessary to get as close to the truth as possible.

Loss Of Original Meaning

Think about how language changes over time. Words that meant one thing centuries ago might mean something completely different today. Now, imagine trying to understand a manuscript written in a language that’s evolved significantly. It’s not just about the words themselves, but also the cultural context in which they were written.

What did the author intend to convey? What were the social norms of the time? All of these things can affect how we interpret a manuscript, and if we don’t take them into account, we risk losing the original meaning altogether.

It’s not just about reading the words on the page; it’s about understanding the world in which those words were written. It’s about trying to get inside the author’s head and see things from their perspective. It’s a challenging task, but it’s also incredibly rewarding when you finally start to piece things together and get a glimpse into the past.

What are the difficulties historians face in using manuscripts?

Here’s a quick list of things that can get lost in translation:

  • Subtle nuances in language
  • Cultural references that are no longer understood
  • The author’s personal biases and assumptions

The Impact of Time On Manuscripts

Ncrt Class 7 History Chapter 1 Solutions For What Are The Difficulties Historians Face In Using Manuscripts The Impact of Time on Manuscripts

Time can be a real enemy to old manuscripts. It’s not just about them getting old; it’s about how the materials themselves change, how language evolves, and how our whole culture shifts. It’s a lot to consider when you’re trying to understand something written hundreds of years ago.

Deterioration Of Materials

Okay, so imagine you have a really old book. Over time, the paper gets brittle, the ink fades, and sometimes, the whole thing just starts to fall apart. Natural elements like humidity, light, and even pests can speed up this process.

This makes it super hard to read and handle these documents without causing more damage. It’s like trying to solve a puzzle when half the pieces are missing or crumbling in your hands.

Changes In Language And Terminology

Ever tried reading something written in Old English? It’s a different language! Even if it’s “just” regular English from a few centuries ago, words can change their meaning, and phrases that made sense back then might sound weird now.

It’s not just about vocabulary; the way people structure sentences can be different. It’s like trying to understand a joke when you don’t know the cultural references. This is why understanding historical context is so important.

Difficulties in using the manuscripts, class 7

Cultural Shifts Over Centuries

Think about how much society has changed in the last 100 years, let alone 500 or 1000! What people believed, what they valued, and how they saw the world all influence what they wrote. If you don’t understand the cultural context, you might misinterpret what the author was trying to say.

It’s like watching a movie from another country and missing all the subtle nuances because you don’t know the cultural background. Understanding these shifts is key to interpreting manuscripts accurately.

Trying to understand a manuscript without considering the cultural context is like trying to assemble a puzzle without looking at the picture on the box. You might get some pieces in the right place, but you’ll probably miss the overall meaning.

Historians Studying Old Manuscripts

Access And Preservation Issues

Manuscripts, being old and fragile, present a unique set of problems when it comes to access and preservation. It’s not just about keeping them safe; it’s about making them available for study while ensuring they survive for future generations. This balancing act is a constant challenge for historians and archivists.

Limited Availability of Manuscripts

Finding manuscripts can be like searching for a needle in a haystack. Many are locked away in private collections or scattered across different institutions, making it hard for researchers to get a complete picture.

Plus, even when you know a manuscript exists, getting permission to view it can be a whole other hurdle. It’s not always clear who owns the rights, or the owners might be hesitant to grant access due to concerns about damage or theft. This limited availability slows down the research process.

Environmental Factors Affecting Preservation

Manuscripts are super sensitive to their surroundings. Things like temperature, humidity, and light can really mess them up. Too much moisture leads to mold, while too much light fades the ink and weakens the paper. Even air pollution can cause damage over time.

Preserving these documents means creating a controlled environment, which can be expensive and difficult, especially for institutions with limited resources.

Challenges In Archival Management

Managing archives is a complex job. It’s not just about storing manuscripts; it’s about cataloging them, digitizing them, and making sure they’re accessible to researchers.

This requires a lot of time, money, and expertise. Plus, there’s the constant risk of damage or loss due to natural disasters, theft, or just plain old neglect. It’s a never-ending battle to keep these historical treasures safe and organized.

The sheer volume of manuscripts can be overwhelming. Imagine trying to organize thousands of documents, each with its own unique characteristics and preservation needs. It’s a logistical nightmare that requires careful planning and a dedicated team.

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 History Chapter 1

Here’s a quick look at some common archival challenges:

  • Lack of funding for preservation efforts
  • Shortage of trained archivists
  • Difficulty in balancing preservation with accessibility

Interpretation Difficulties

Deciphering Old Scripts

Okay, so imagine trying to read something written in a font you’ve never seen before, but it’s not just a font, it’s an entire writing system that’s been out of use for centuries. That’s what historians deal with when they’re trying to read old manuscripts.

It’s not just about knowing the language; it’s about figuring out what the heck each symbol even is. It’s like trying to solve a really old, really complicated code. You might need a paleography guide to even get started.

Understanding Historical Context

Manuscripts don’t exist in a vacuum. They were written by someone, at some time, for some reason. To understand what a manuscript is saying, you have to know something about the world that the author lived in.

What were the big political issues? What were the popular beliefs? What was considered normal or acceptable? Without that context, you’re just guessing. It’s like trying to understand a joke without knowing the setup. You might miss the whole point. It’s important to consider the manuscript’s historical context.

Variations In Manuscript Versions

Before the printing press, everything was copied by hand, and copyists made mistakes. Sometimes they also made changes on purpose, to clarify something or to add their thoughts.

That means that you might have multiple versions of the same text, and they might all be different. Figuring out which version is closest to the original or which version is the most reliable can be a real challenge.

It’s not uncommon to find significant discrepancies between different copies of the same manuscript. These variations can range from minor spelling errors to major changes in content, making it difficult to determine the author’s original intent.

Here’s a quick look at how variations might appear:

  • Spelling differences
  • Omitted sentences
  • Added commentary
  • Reorganized paragraphs

The Difficulties Historians Face In Using Manuscripts

Technological Limitations

Ncrt Class 7 History Chapter 1 Solutions For What Are The Difficulties Historians Face In Using Manuscripts Technological Limitations

It’s easy to forget how much technology impacts our ability to study old manuscripts. We’re so used to instant access and digital tools that the limitations of the past can be a real hurdle. Think about trying to piece together a puzzle with missing pieces, except the puzzle is a fragile, centuries-old document. It’s not always a walk in the park.

Lack of Digital Resources

One of the biggest problems is the simple lack of digital versions of many manuscripts. While some major libraries and archives are working hard to digitize their collections, it’s a slow process. This means historians often have to travel to physically examine documents, which can be expensive and time-consuming.

Plus, even when digital images exist, they might not be high-resolution enough for detailed analysis. It’s like trying to read a book through a blurry window.

Challenges in Reproducing Manuscripts

Even when you can access a manuscript, reproducing it for study can be tricky. Old methods like photography can damage fragile documents. Modern scanning techniques are better, but still require careful handling. And let’s not forget the cost! High-quality reproductions can be expensive, limiting access for researchers with smaller budgets. This creates a barrier to entry for many scholars.

Inadequate Tools for Analysis

We also lack the tools to dig deep into some manuscripts. Imagine trying to decipher faded ink or analyze the chemical composition of parchment without the right equipment. While technology is improving, we’re still far from having all the tools we need.

For example, AI is increasingly used in historical research, but widespread use of AI-generated research could lead to a decline in scholarly work quality.

It’s important to remember that technology isn’t just about convenience; it’s about access and the ability to ask new questions. When we lack the tools to properly study manuscripts, we’re missing out on potential insights into the past.

The Difficulties Historians Face In Using Manuscripts

Ethical Considerations in Manuscript Use

Respecting Authorial Intent

When we’re digging into old manuscripts, it’s super important to think about what the original author was trying to say. It’s easy to read our ideas and biases into the text, but we need to try our best to understand what the author intended.

This means looking at the historical context, the author’s background, and the purpose of the writing. It’s like trying to have a conversation with someone from the past, and we need to listen carefully to what they’re saying, not just what we want them to say.

Issues of Copyright and Ownership

Copyright and ownership can get tricky with manuscripts. Who owns the rights to these old texts? Is it the institution that holds the manuscript? The author’s descendants? It’s often not clear-cut. We need to be careful about how we use and reproduce these materials.

For example, if you’re planning to publish a manuscript, you need to figure out who owns the copyright and get permission. It’s a legal and ethical minefield, and it’s important to tread carefully. It’s also important to consider research results and their reliability.

Cultural Sensitivity in Interpretation

Manuscripts often come from different cultures and periods, and it’s easy to misinterpret them if we don’t understand the cultural context. We need to be aware of our own biases and assumptions and try to see the manuscript from the perspective of the culture it came from.

This might mean learning about the culture’s beliefs, values, and social norms. It also means being respectful of the culture’s traditions and avoiding interpretations that could be offensive or harmful.

It’s important to remember that manuscripts are not just historical documents; they’re also cultural artifacts. They represent the beliefs, values, and experiences of the people who created them. We need to approach them with respect and sensitivity, and we need to be aware of the potential for misinterpretation.

Comparative Analysis of Manuscripts

Identifying Authenticity

Determining whether a manuscript is genuine can be a real puzzle. It’s not just about the age of the paper or ink. Experts look at everything from the handwriting style to the language used, comparing it to known authentic documents from the same period and region.

Sometimes, scientific methods like carbon dating can help, but even those aren’t foolproof. It’s a bit like detective work, piecing together clues to build a solid case.

Cross-Referencing Different Versions

Because manuscripts were copied by hand, variations are inevitable. Scribes made mistakes, added their interpretations, or even deliberately changed things. To get as close as possible to the original author’s intent, historians have to compare multiple versions of the same text. This involves:

  • Identifying common elements.
  • Noting discrepancies.
  • Analyzing the context of each version.
  • Considering the scribe’s background.

It’s a painstaking process, but it’s essential for understanding how a text evolved and what it might have originally meant. This is especially important when dealing with religious or legal texts, where even small changes can have big consequences.

Understanding Regional Variations

Manuscripts weren’t produced in a vacuum. The language, writing style, and even the content could be influenced by the region where they were created. For example, a manuscript produced in one part of India might use different terms or have a different emphasis than one from another region.

Understanding these regional variations can provide valuable insights into the cultural and social context of the time. It’s like learning a new dialect – it opens up a whole new way of understanding the text. Considering data interpretability is key to understanding these variations.

The Difficulties Historians Face In Using Manuscripts: The Challenges of Manuscript Research

In conclusion, historians have a tough job when it comes to using manuscripts. The lack of a printing press in the past meant everything had to be copied by hand, which led to mistakes and changes over time. This makes it hard to know what the original text said.

As a result, historians often find themselves piecing together different versions of the same document, trying to figure out what the author intended. It’s a complicated process, and it shows just how much work goes into understanding our history. So next time you read a historical text, remember the hurdles historians had to jump through to get there.

Manuscript challenges faced by historians: Frequently Asked Questions

What are the main challenges historians face when using manuscripts?

Historians encounter several issues with manuscripts. Since there was no printing press in the past, scribes had to write everything by hand. This manual copying often led to small mistakes. Over many years, these tiny errors added up, making different copies of the same text look quite different from each other. Because of this, we rarely find the original version of a manuscript today.

How Does Time Affect The Condition Of Manuscripts?

As time passes, manuscripts can deteriorate. The materials used to create them, like paper and ink, can wear down or fade. Additionally, the language and words we use change over centuries, making it harder to understand older texts. Cultural changes over time can also alter how we interpret these documents.

Why Is Access To Manuscripts Often Limited?

Many manuscripts are not easily accessible because they are rare or stored in specific places like libraries or archives.
Environmental factors, such as humidity and light, can damage these documents, making preservation a challenge. Furthermore, the management of archives can be difficult, which limits access to these historical texts.

What Makes Interpreting Manuscripts Difficult?

Interpreting manuscripts can be tough because historians must decipher old handwriting, which can be hard to read. They also need to understand the historical context in which the manuscript was written, which can vary significantly. Different versions of the same manuscript can exist, adding to the confusion.

What Technological Challenges Do Historians Face With Manuscripts?

Many historians lack access to digital resources that could help them study manuscripts more effectively. Reproducing manuscripts accurately can be difficult, and there aren’t always good tools available for analyzing these texts, which can hinder research.

What Ethical Issues Arise When Using Historical Manuscripts?

Historians must be careful to respect the original intent of the authors of manuscripts. There are also issues related to copyright and ownership, especially for manuscripts that belong to specific cultures or communities. Being sensitive to cultural differences in interpretation is also important.

NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 Solutions For How Were The Affairs Of Jatis Regulated

NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 Solutions For How Were The Affairs Of Jatis Regulated

In NCERT Class 7 History, the regulation of jati affairs is a fascinating topic. Jatis, or social groups, played a significant role in the social structure of medieval India. Their governance was often managed by assemblies known as jati panchayats, which enforced rules and regulations for their members.

Understanding how these systems worked provides insight into the societal dynamics of that time, including how jatis interacted with village governance and adapted to changes in their environment.

Jati Panchayats Medieva India History

The Affairs Of Jatis Regulated

  • Jati panchayats were assemblies of elders that regulated the behavior of jati members.
  • Jatis created their own rules to maintain order and discipline within their communities.
  • These social groups had to comply with the broader rules set by village authorities.
  • The jati system evolved, reflecting changes in society and governance.
  • Cultural identity and social cohesion were deeply influenced by the norms established by jatis.

NCERT Class 7 History Chapter 1 Question Answer

Role Of Jati Panchayat In Regulation

Definition Of Jati Panchayat

Jati Panchayats were essentially assemblies of elders, acting as the governing body within individual jatis. These bodies were responsible for maintaining social order and resolving disputes.

They weren’t formal institutions in the way we think of courts today, but rather a community-based system of justice and regulation. Their composition and specific functions could vary from region to region, reflecting the diverse nature of social structures at the time.

Functions Of Jati Panchayat :

The Jati Panchayat had several key functions:

  • Rule Enforcement: Ensuring members adhered to the jati’s established customs and norms.
  • Dispute Resolution: Mediating conflicts between members and delivering judgments.
  • Social Control: Upholding moral standards and addressing any deviations from accepted behavior.
  • Community Welfare: Sometimes, they also played a role in organizing community events and supporting members in need.

The Jati Panchayat’s role extended beyond simple law enforcement. It was deeply intertwined with the social fabric, influencing everything from marriage arrangements to occupational choices. This system provided a framework for maintaining order and cohesion within the jati.

Authority Of Jati Panchayat

The authority of the Jati Panchayat stemmed from the community’s acceptance and respect for its decisions. While they didn’t have formal legal power in the modern sense, their rulings carried significant weight. Social ostracism or fines were common penalties for those who defied the panchayat’s authority.

The effectiveness of the panchayat depended on the strength of community bonds and the perceived legitimacy of its leadership. It’s important to note that social conflicts were often handled by these bodies, showcasing their importance in maintaining social harmony.

Formation Of Rules By Jatis

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 1 Solutions For How Were The Affairs Of Jatis Regulated Formation Of Rules By Jatis

Self-Regulation Within Jatis

Okay, so imagine each jati as its little club, right? And like any club, they needed rules to keep things running smoothly. These rules weren’t handed down from some king or anything; they came from within the jati itself.

It was all about maintaining order and making sure everyone was on the same page. Think of it as a way to preserve their identity and way of life.

The Affairs Of Jatis Regulated Types Of Rules Established

So, what kind of rules are we talking about? Well, it varied from jati to jati, but some common themes pop up:

  • Marriage rules: Who you could marry, who you couldn’t. This was a big one for maintaining jati purity and social standing.
  • Occupation rules: What jobs were acceptable for members of the jati? This is often tied to their traditional roles in society.
  • Social conduct: How members should behave towards each other and outsiders. This covered everything from etiquette to dispute resolution.
  • Religious practices: Specific rituals and customs that were unique to the jati.

It’s important to remember that these rules weren’t always written down. Often, they were passed down orally from generation to generation, becoming deeply ingrained in the jati’s culture.

How Were the Affairs of Jatis Regulated?

Impact Of Rules On Members

These rules had a huge impact on the lives of Jati members. They dictated everything from their career choices to their social interactions. On the one hand, they provided a sense of belonging and security. You knew where you stood, and you knew what was expected of you.

On the other hand, they could be restrictive and limit individual freedom. Breaking the rules could lead to serious consequences, like being ostracized from the jati. It was a delicate balance between individual autonomy and social norms.

Interaction With Village Governance

Relationship With Village Chieftains

Jatis didn’t exist in a vacuum; they were part of a larger village ecosystem. Villages were often governed by chieftains, who held considerable sway over local affairs. The relationship between jati panchayats and village chieftains was complex, sometimes cooperative and sometimes fraught with tension.

Jatis generally had to acknowledge the authority of the chieftain, but the extent of their autonomy varied. A strong chieftain might exert more control over jati matters, while a weaker one might allow jatis more independence. This dynamic created a constant negotiation of power and influence.

Compliance With Village Rules

While jatis had their own internal rules, they were also expected to follow the broader rules of the village. This could sometimes lead to conflicts if jati customs clashed with village norms. For example, rules about land use, resource sharing, or social interactions could be points of contention.

Jati panchayats often acted as intermediaries, trying to balance the needs of their members with the expectations of the village. Compliance wasn’t always straightforward, and there could be instances of resistance or negotiation.

Influence Of Village Dynamics

The overall dynamics of the village significantly influenced the functioning of the jatis. A village with a strong sense of community might see greater cooperation between different jatis. Conversely, a village marked by conflict or inequality might experience more friction.

The economic conditions of the village also played a role. In prosperous villages, jatis might have more resources and autonomy. In poorer villages, they might be more dependent on the village leadership. The village chieftain’s role was critical in mediating these dynamics.

The interplay between jatis and village governance highlights the decentralized nature of social control in medieval India. While jatis managed their internal affairs, they were also subject to the broader authority of the village. This created a system of checks and balances, where different levels of authority interacted and influenced each other.

Class 7 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions

Here are some factors that influenced the relationship:

  • The strength of the village chieftain
  • The economic conditions of the village
  • The social harmony within the village

Historical Context Of Jati Regulation

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 1 Solutions For How Were The Affairs Of Jatis Regulated Historical Context Of Jati Regulation

Evolution Of Jati Systems

The jati system didn’t just pop up overnight. It evolved over centuries, starting from the varna system and gradually becoming more complex. Initially, the varna system was more about occupational divisions, but over time, these divisions became hereditary and more rigid.

This evolution was influenced by various factors, including economic changes, political shifts, and social interactions. The emergence of new crafts and professions also led to the formation of new jatis, adding layers to the existing social structure.

Understanding this evolution is key to grasping the intricacies of social stratification in medieval India. It’s a long and winding road from the early Varna system to the complex web of jatis that we see later on.

Comparison With Other Societal Structures

It’s interesting to compare the jati system with other social structures around the world. While many societies have some form of social hierarchy, the jati system is unique in its rigidity and hereditary nature.

For example, feudal systems in Europe also had social classes, but there was often more social mobility. In contrast, the jati system organized individuals into fixed groups with limited opportunities for upward mobility. This comparison highlights the distinctive features of the jati system and its profound impact on Indian society.

The Affairs Of Jatis Regulated Significance In Medieval India

The jati system played a huge role in medieval India. It wasn’t just a social structure; it was deeply intertwined with the economy, politics, and culture. Jatis often controlled specific trades and occupations, influencing economic activities.

They also played a role in local governance and social control. Furthermore, jati identities shaped cultural practices, rituals, and traditions. Understanding the significance of jatis is essential for understanding medieval Indian history.

It’s like trying to understand a car without knowing how the engine works – you might see the outside, but you’re missing the core mechanics.

The jati system wasn’t just a set of rules; it was a way of life. It shaped people’s identities, determined their occupations, and influenced their social interactions. It was a complex and multifaceted system that left a lasting impact on Indian society.

Challenges Faced By Jatis

Internal Conflicts

Jatis weren’t always harmonious. Disputes over leadership, resources, or even just differing interpretations of customs could lead to significant internal strife.

These conflicts could weaken a jati’s overall standing and its ability to effectively regulate its members. Sometimes, these disagreements resulted in splinter groups forming new jatis altogether. Maintaining unity was a constant challenge.

External Pressures 

Jatis didn’t exist in a vacuum. They were constantly influenced by the broader political and economic landscape. Changes in rulers, the rise of new trade routes, or even natural disasters could put immense pressure on a jati’s traditional way of life.

Affairs of Jatis Regulated Explanation

For example, a jati heavily reliant on agriculture might face severe hardship during a prolonged drought. This could lead to members seeking alternative livelihoods, potentially disrupting the jati’s established social order. The need to adapt to these external forces was a persistent struggle.

Adaptation To Changing Times

As society evolved, jatis had to adapt or risk becoming irrelevant. This meant re-evaluating old rules, embracing new opportunities, and sometimes even challenging the established hierarchy.

This process wasn’t always smooth. Some members resisted change, clinging to tradition, while others pushed for more radical reforms.

This tension between tradition and modernity created significant challenges for jatis, forcing them to navigate a complex path forward. The Hindu caste system faced criticism from reform-minded Indians.

The ability of a jati to successfully adapt often determined its long-term survival and influence. Those that remained rigid and resistant to change often faded into obscurity, while those that embraced innovation and flexibility were able to thrive in a changing world.

Here are some ways Jatis adapted:

  • Modifying traditional occupations.
  • Adopting new technologies.
  • Negotiating with ruling powers.

Cultural Significance Of Jatis

Jatis And Identity Formation

Jatis played a huge role in shaping people’s identities. It wasn’t just about what job your family did; it was about who you were, how you related to others, and what traditions you followed.

Your jati was like your extended family, giving you a sense of belonging and a shared history. It’s hard to imagine life back then without that strong connection to your jati.

Role In Social Cohesion

Jatis weren’t just about individual identity; they also helped hold society together. They created a sense of order and structure, with each jati having its role and responsibilities.

This system, while not always fair, provided a framework for people to interact and cooperate. It’s kind of like how different departments in a company work together to achieve a common goal. The concept of ‘Jati’ in society helped maintain social harmony, even if it wasn’t always perfect.

Influence On Local Traditions

Jatis had a massive impact on local traditions. Each jati often had its own unique customs, rituals, and festivals. These traditions added color and diversity to the cultural landscape.

Think about it: different jatis might have different styles of music, dance, or even cooking. These local traditions were passed down through generations, shaping the way people lived and celebrated. It’s like how different regions have their unique dialects and slang; it all adds to the richness of the culture.

Jatis were more than just social groups; they were the building blocks of medieval Indian society. They shaped people’s identities, influenced local traditions, and helped maintain social order. Understanding the role of jatis is key to understanding the history and culture of the time.

The Regulation of Jati Affairs

In conclusion, the way jatis managed their affairs was pretty interesting. They had their own set of rules, which they created to keep things in order.

The jati panchayat, made up of respected elders, played a big role in enforcing these rules. Plus, they had to follow the village rules too, which were overseen by a chieftain.

This system helped maintain social order and ensured that everyone knew what was expected of them. Understanding how jatis operated gives us a glimpse into the social structure of the past and how communities worked together.

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 History Chapter 1

Frequently Asked Questions

Question 1. What Is A Jati Panchayat?
Answer:  A Jati Panchayat is a group of elders from a jati (community) who come together to make decisions and enforce rules for their members.

Question 2. What Are The Main Duties Of A Jati Panchayat?
Answer: The Jati Panchayat is responsible for creating rules, resolving disputes among members, and ensuring that everyone follows the community’s guidelines.

Question 3. How Do Jatis Create Their Own Rules?
Answer: Jatis create their own rules based on their traditions and needs. These rules help manage the behavior of their members and maintain order.

Question 4. How Do Jatis Interact With Village Leaders?
Answer: Jatis often work alongside village leaders, known as chieftains, to follow village laws and ensure that their own rules align with the village’s regulations.

Question 5. What Challenges Do Jatis Face?
Answer: Jatis can face problems like disagreements within the community, pressure from outside groups, and the need to adapt to modern changes.

Question 6. Why Are Jatis Important To Culture?
Answer: Jatis play a key role in forming identities and bringing people together. They influence local customs and help maintain social bonds.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 6 Integers

Class 6 Maths Chapter 6 Integers

Exercise – 6.1

1. Write opposites of the following:

(1) Increase in weight
(2) 30 km north
(3) 80 m east
(4) Loss of? 700
(5) 1 00 m above sea level

Solution: (1) Decrease in weight

(2) 30 km south

(3) 80 m west

(4) Profit of? 700

(5) 100 m below sea level

Read and Learn More Class 6 Maths Exemplar Solutions

2. Represent the following numbers as integers with appropriate signs.

(1) An aeroplane is flying at a height, two thousand metre above the ground.
(2) A submarine is moving at a depth, eight hundred metre below the sea level.
(3) A deposit of rupees two hundred.
(4) Withdrawal of rupees seven hundred.

Solution: (1) Two thousand metre above the ground = + 2000

(2) Eight hundred metre below the sea level = -800

(3) Deposit of two hundred rupees = + 200

(4) Withdrawal of seven hundred rupees = -700

3. Represent the following numbers on a number line:

(1) +5
(2) -10
(3) + 8
(4) -1
(5) -6

Solution: (1)

Represent the following numbers on a number line -5

(2)

Represent the following numbers on a number line -10

(3)

Represent the following numbers on a number line -8

(4)

Represent the following numbers on a number line -1

(5)

Represent the following numbers on a number line -6

4. Adjacent figure is a vertical number A line, representing integers. Observe it and locate the following points:

(1) If point D is + 8, then which point is -8?
(2) Is point G a negative integer or a positive integer?
(3) Write integers for points 8 and E.
(4) Which point marked on this number line has the least value?
(5) Arrange all the points in decreasing order of value.

Adjacent figure is a vertical number line

Solution: (1) We have, point D is +8.

Therefore, 16 steps to the down from D is -8 i.e., the point F.

(2) Point G is a negative integer.

(3) Point B is four steps down from point D.

Value of point B = +8- 4 = +4

Point E is eighteen steps down from point D.

Value of point E = +8- 18 = -10

(4) Since, point E is located in the bottom.

So, point E has the least value.

(5) Decreasing order of all the points is,

D, C,B, A,0, H,G, F,E

5. Following Is the list of temperatures of five places In India on a particular day of the year.

Place                              Temperature

Siachin                           10°C below 0°C …………

Shimla                            2°C below 0°C …………

Ahmedabad                   30°C above 0°C …………

Delhi                              20°C above 0°C …………

Srinagar                          5°C below 0°C …………

(1) Write the temperatures of these places in the form of integers in the blank column.

(2) Following is the number line representing the temperature in degree Celsius

Plot the name of the city against its temperature.

(3) Which is the coolest place?

(4) Write the names of the places where temperatures are above 10°C.

Solution:

Place                           Temperature

(1) Siachin                  -10°C

Shimla                        -2°C

Ahmedabad               + 30°C

Delhi                          + 20°C

Srinagar                     -5°C

(3) Siachin is the coolest place.

(4) Ahmedabad and Delhi have temperature above 10°C.

6. In each of the following pairs, which number is to the right of the other on the number line?

(1) 2, 9
(2) -3,-8
(3) 0,-1
(4) -11,10
(5) -6,6
(6) 1,-100

Solution: (1) 9 is right to 2

(2) -3 is right to -8

(3) 0 is right to -1

(4) 10 is right to -11

(5) 6 is right to -6

(6) 1 is right to -100

7. Write all the integers between the given pairs (write them in the increasing order.)

(1) 0 and-7
(2) -4 and 4
(4) -30 and -23
(3) -8 and -15

Solution: (1) The integers between 0 and -7 are -6, -5, -4, -3, -2, -1

(2) The integers between -4 and 4 are -3, -2, -1,0, 1,2, 3

(3) The integers between-8 and -15 are -14, -13, -12, -11, -10, -9

(4) The integers between -30 and -23 are -29, -28, -27, -26, -25, -24

8. (1) Write four negative integers greater than -20.

(2) Write four integers less than- 1 0.

Solution: (1) There are 19 negative integers which are greater than -20. Four of them are -19, -18, -17, -16

(2) There are infinite integers which are less than -10. Four of them are -11, -12, -13, -14

9. For the following statements, write True (T) or False (6). If the statement is false, correct the statement.

(1) – 8 is to the right of- 1 0 on a number line.
(2) – 100 is to the right of – 50 on a number line.
(3) Smallest negative integer is -1.
(4) – 26 is greater than- 25

Solution: (1) True

(2) False

Since -100 is to the left of -50 on the number line.

(3) False

Since -1 is the greatest negative integer.

(4) False

Since -26 is less than -25.

10. Draw a number line and answer the following :

(1) Which number will we reach if we move 4 numbers to the right of- 2.
(2) Which number will we reach if we move 5 numbers to the left of 1.
(3) if wc arc at- 8 on the number line, in which direction should we move to reach – 1 3?
(4) If we are at- 6 on the number line, in which direction should we move to reach – 1 ?

Solution: (1)

we will reach 2 if we move 4 numbers to the right of -2

Thus, we will reach 2 if we move 4 numbers to the right of -2.

(2)

 

Thus, we will reach -4 if we move 5 numbers to the left of 1

Thus, we will reach -4 if we move 5 numbers to the left of 1.

(3)

Thus, we will reach -4 if we move 5 numbers to the left of 1 Thus, we should move 5 numbers to the left of-8 to reach -13

Thus, we should move 5 numbers to the left of-8 to reach -13.

(4)

Thus, we should move 5 numbers to the right of -6 to reach -1

Thus, we should move 5 numbers to the right of -6 to reach -1.

Exercise – 6.2

1. Using the number line write the integer which is:

(1) 3 more than 5
(2) 5 more than -5
(3) 6 less than 2
(4) 3 less than -2

Solution: (1)

Thus, we will reach -4 if we move 5 numbers to the left of 1

Thus, 3 more than 5 is 8.

(2)

5 more than -5

Thus, 5 more than -5 is 0.

(3)

6 less than 2

Thus, 6 less than 2 is -4.

(4)

3 less than -2

Thus, 3 less than -2 is -5.

2. Use number line and add the following integers :

(1) 9 + (-6)
(2) 5 + (-11)
(3) (-1) + (-7)
(4) (- 5) + 10
(5) (- 1 ) + (- 2) + (- 3)
(6) (- 2) + 8 + (- 4)

Solution: (1)

9 + (-6)

Thus, 9 + (-6) = 3

(2)

5 + (-11)

Thus, 5 + (-11) = -6

(3)

(-1) + (-7)

Thus, (-1) + (-7) = -8

(4)

(- 5) + 10

Thus, (-5) + 10 = 5

(5)

(- 1 ) + (- 2) + (- 3)

Thus, (-1) + (-2) + (-3) = -6

(6)

(- 2) + 8 + (- 4)

Thus, (-2) + 8 + (-4) = 2

3. Add without using number line:

(1) 1 1 + (- 7)
(2) (-13) + (+18)
(3) (-10) + (+19)
(4) (-250) + (+150)
(5) (- 380) + (- 270)
(6) (- 21 7) + (- 1 00)

Solution: (1) 11+ (-7) -11-7=4

(2) (-13) + (+18)= -13 + 18 =5

(3) (-10) + (+19)= -10 + 19 =9

(4) (-250) + (+150) = -250 + 150 = -100

(5) (-380) + (-270) = -380- 270 = -650

(6) (-217) + (-100) = -217 -100 = -317

4. Find the sum of:

(1) 137 and -354
(2) -52 and 52
(3) -31 2, 39 and 192
(4) -50, -200 and 300

Solution: (1) 137 + (-354) = 137- 354 = -217

(2) -52 + 52 = 0

(3) -312 + 39 + 192 = -312 + 231 =-81

(4) -50 + (-200) + 300 = -50 -200 + 300 = -250 + 300 = 50

5. Find the sum:

(1) (- 7) + (- 9) + 4 + 16
(2) (37) + (-2) + (-65) + (-8)

Solution: (1) (-7) + (-9) + 4 + 16

=-7-9 + 4 + 16

= -16 + 20 = 4

(2) (37) + (-2) + (-65) + (-8)

= 37-2-65-8

= 37- 75 =- 38

Exercise – 6.3

1. Find

(1) 35 -(20)
(2) 72 -(90)
(3) (-15) -(-18)
(4) (-20) -(13)
(5) 23 -(-12)
(6) (-32) -(-40)

Solution: (1) 35-20 = 15

(2) 72 -90 = -18

(3) (-15)- (-18) =- 15 + 18 = 3

(4) (-20) -(13) = -20 -13 = -33

(5) 23 -(-12) = 23 + 12 = 35

(6) (-32) -(-40) =-32 + 40 = 8

2. Fill in the blanks with >, < or = sign.

(1) (- 3) + (- 6) _________ (- 3)- (- 6)
(2) (-21) -(-10) ___________ (— 31) + (— 11)
(3) 45 – (- 11)___________ 57 + (-4)
(4) (-25) -(-42)__________ (- 42)- (- 25)

Solution: (1) < : (-3) + (-6) = -3- 6 = -9

(-3) -(-6) –3 + 6 = 3

Since, -9 < 3

(-3) + (-6) < (-3)- (-6)

(2) > : (-21)- (-10) = -21 + 10 = -11

(-31) + (-11) = -31 – 11 = -42

Since, -11 > -42

(-21) -(-10) >(-31) + (-11)

(3) > : 45- (-11) = 45 + 11 = 56

57 + (-4) = 57- 4 = 53

Since, 56 > 53

45 -(-11) >57 + (-4)

(4) > : (-25)- (-42) = -25 + 42 = 17

(-42)- (-25) = -42 + 25 = -17

Since, 17 >-17

(-25)- (-42) > (-42)- (-25)

3. Fill in the blanks

(1) (-8) +_______=0

(2) 13 +_________=0

(3) 12 + (-12) =_____

(4) (-4) +________=-12

(5) _________ -15 = -10

Solution: (1) 8 : (-8) + 8 = 0

(2) -13 : 13 + (-13) = 0

(3) 0:12 + (-12) = 0

(4) -8: (-4) + (-8) =-12

(5) 5: 5- 15 = -10

4. Find

(1) (-7)-8- (-25)
(2) (-13) + 32 -8-1
(3) (- 7) + (- 8) + (- 90)
(4) 50 -(-40) -(-2)

Solution: (1) (-7)- 8- (-25)

=-7-8 + 25

= -15 + 25 = 10

(2) (-13) +32-8-1

= -13 +32-8-1

= 32- 22 = 10

(3) (-7) + (-8) + (-90)

= -7- 8- 90 =- 105

(4) 50 -(-40) -(-2)

= 50 + 40 + 2 = 92

Section-2 NCERT Exemplar

Directions: In questions 1 to 17, only one of the four options is correct. Write the correct one.

1. Every integer less than 0 has the sign

(1) +
(2) –
(3) x
(4) ÷

Solution: (2): Every integer which is less than 0 has negative sign.

2. The integer ‘5 units to the right of 0 on the number line’ is

(1) +5
(2) -5
(3) +4
(4) -4

Solution: (1): The integer which is 5 units to the right of 0 on the number line is +5.

3. The predecessor of the integer -1 is

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) -2
(4) 1

Solution: (3): The predecessor of the integer -1 is -2.

4. Number of integers lying between -1 and 1 is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

Solution: (1): Only 1 integer lies between -1 and1 i.e., 0

5. Number of whole numbers lying between -5 and 5 is

(1) 10
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

Solution: (4): There are 5 whole numbers lying between -5 and 5 i.e., 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4.

6. The greatest integer lying between -10 and -15 is

(1) -10
(2) -11
(3) -15
(4) -14

Solution: (2): -11 is the greatest integer lying between -10 and -15

7. The least integer lying between -10 and -15 is

(1) -10
(2) -11
(3) -15
(4) -14

Solution: (4): -14 is the least integer lying between -10 and -15.

8. On the number line, the integer 5 is located

(1) to the left of 0
(2) to the right of 0
(3) to the left of 1
(4) to the left of-2

Solution: (2):

On the number line, the integer 5 is located

The above number line shows that the integer 5 is located to the right of 0

9. In which of the following pairs of integers, the first integer is not on the left of the other integer on the number line?

(1) (-1,10)
(2) (-3,-5)
(3) (-5,-3)
(4) (-6,0)

Solution: (2) :

In which of the following pairs of integers,

On observing all the options by using a number line, we get that there is only one pair (-3, -5) in which the first integer is not on the left of the other integer.

10. The integer with negative sign (-) is always less than

(1) 0
(2) -3
(3) -1
(4) -2

Solution: (1): All the negative integers are less than 0.

11. An integer with positive sign (+) is always greater than

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

Solution: (1): All the positive integers are greater than 0.

12. The successor of the predecessor of -50 is

(1) -48
(2) -49
(3) -50
(4) -51

Solution: (3): The predecessor of -50 is -51 and the successor of -51 is -50.

13. The additive inverse of a negative integer

(1) is always negative
(2) is always positive
(3) is the same integer
(4) zero

Solution: (2): The additive inverse of a negative integer is always positive.

14. Amulya and Amar visited two places A and B respectively in Kashmir and recorded the minimum temperatures on a particular day as -4°C at A and -1°C at 6. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) A is cooler than B
(2) Bis cooler than A
(3) There is a difference of 2°C in the temperature
(4) The temperature at A is 4°C higher than that at B.

Solution: (1) :- 4°C < -1°C [ – 4 lies on the left of-1 on the number line]

Thus, A is cooler than B.

15. When a negative integer is subtracted from another negative integer, the sign of the result

(1) is always negative
(2) is always positive
(3) is never negative
(4) depends on the numerical value of the integers

Solution: (4): When a negative integer is subtracted from another negative integer, the sign of the result depends on the numerical
value of the integers.

16. The statement “When an integer is added to itself, the sum is greater than the integer” is

(1) always true
(2) never true
(3) true only when the integer is positive
(4) true for non-negative integers

Solution: (3): When an integer is added to itself, the sum is greater than the integer only when the integer is positive.

17. Which of the following shows the maximum rise in temperature?

(1) 0°C to 1 0°C
(2) -4°C to 8°C
(3) -15°C to -8°C
(4) -7°C to 0°C

Solution: (2) : (1) Rise in temperature = (10- 0)°C = 10°C

(2) Rise in temperature = (8- (-4))°C = (8 + 4)°C = 12°C

(3) Rise in temperature = (-8- (-15))°C = (-8 + 15)°C = 7°C

(4) Rise in temperature = (0- (-7))°C = (0 + 7)°C = 7°C

Thus, option (2) has maximum rise in temperature.

Directions: In questions 18 to 39, state whether the given statements are true (T) orfalse (6).

18. The smallest natural number is zero.

Solution: False

Since,1 is the smallest natural number.

19. Zero is not an integer as it is neither positive nor negative.

Solution: False

0 is neither positive nor negative, but it is an integer.

20. The sum of all the integers between -5 and -1 is -6.

Solution: False

-4, -3 and -2 lie between -5 and -1 and their sum is (-4) + (-3) + (-2) =-4-3-2 = -9

21. The successor of the integer 1 is 0.

Solution: False

0 is the predecessor of 1.

22. Every positive integer is larger than every negative integer.

Solution: True

Since positive integers lies on the right side of 0 and negative integers lies on the left side of 0 and the integers lying on the right are
always greater.

23. The sum of any two negative integers is always greater than both the integers.

Solution: False

Since, the sum of any two negative integers is always smaller than both the integers.

24. The sum ofany two negative integers is always smaller than both the integers.

Solution: True

25. The sum of any two positive integers is greater than both the integers.

Solution: True

26. All whole numbers are integers.

Solution: True

Integers are the collection of 0, positive integers and negative integers.

Whole numbers are the collection of 0 and positive integers.

All whole numbers are integers.

27. All integers are whole numbers.

Solution: False

Integers are the collection of 0, positive integers and negative integers.

Whole numbers are the collection of 0 and positive integers.

All integers are not whole numbers.

28. Since 5 >3, therefore -5 > -3.

Solution: False

Since,5 lies on the right of 3 on the number line 5>3

And-3 lies on the right of-5 on the number line, -3 >-5.

29. Zero is less than every positive integer.

Solution: True

Since, zero lies on the left side of every positive integer on the number line. Therefore, zero is less than every positive integer.

30. Zero is larger than every negative integer.

Solution: True

Since, zero lies on the right side of every negative integer on the number line.

Therefore, zero is larger than every negative integer.

31. Zero is neither positive nor negative.

Solution: True

32. On the number line, an integer on the right of a given integer is always larger than the integer.

Solution: True

33. -2 is to the left of-5 on the number line.

Solution: False

Since, -2 lies on the right of-5 on the number line.

34. The smallest integer is 0.

Solution: False

Since, zero is greater than all the negative integers.

0 is not the smallest integer.

35. 6 and -6 are at the same distance from 0 on the number line.

Solution: True

The integer 6 is 6 units to the right of 0 and the integer -6 is 6 units to the left of 0.

Thus, 6 and -6 are at the same distance from 0 on the number line.

36. The difference between an integer and its additive inverse is always even.

Solution: True

Let a be any integer and -a is its additive inverse.

Difference = a- (-a) = a + a = 2a, which is an even number.

37. The sum of an integer and its additive inverse is always zero.

Solution: True

Let a be any integer and -a is its additive inverse.

Sum = a + (-a) =a- a = 0.

38. The sum of two negative integers is a positive
integer.

Solution: False

Since, the sum of two negative integers is always negative.

39. The sum of three different integers can never be zero.

Solution: False

Let -3, 1, 2 are three different integers.

Sum = (-3) +1 + 2 =-3 + 3 = 0

Directions: In questions 40 to 49, fill in the blanks to make the statements true.

40. On the number line, -1 5 is to the zero.

Solution: Left

41. On the number line, 10 is to the of zero.

Solution: Right

42. The additive Inverse of 14 is_.

Solution: -14: Additive inverse of an integer is obtained by changing the sign of the integer.

Additive inverse of 14 is -14.

43. The additive inverse of-1 is

Solution: 1

44. The additive inverse of 0 is

Solution: 0

45. The number of integers lying between -5 and 5 is

Solution: 9: The integers lying between -5 and 5 are -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 i.e., 9 in number

46. (-11) + (-2) + (-1) =____________

Solution: -14: (-11) + (-2) + (-1) =-11- 2-1 = “14

47.___________ + (-11) + 111 = 130

Solution: 30

48. (-80) + 0 + (-90) =____________

Solution: -170: (-80) + 0 + (-90) =-80 + 0- 90 =-170

49. -3456 = -8910

Solution: -5454

Directions: In questions 50 to 58,fill in the blanks using <, = or >.

50. (-11) + (-15)___________ 11+15
Solution: < : (-11) + (-15) = -11-15 = -26

11 + 15 = 26 and -26 < 26

51. (-71) + (+9)___________ (-81) + (-9)
Solution: >: (-71) + (9) = -71 + 9 = -62

(-81) + (-9) = -81- 9 = -90 and -62 > -90

52. 0__________ 1

Solution: <:0<1

53. -60__________ 50

Solution: < : -60 < 50

54. -10__________ -11

Solution: >: —10 > —11

55. -101___________ -102

Solution: >: -101 >-102

56. (-2) + (-5) + (-6)__________ (-3) + (-4) + (-6)

Solution: = : (-2) + (-5) + (-6) = -2- 5- 6 = -13

(-3) + (-4) + (-6) =-3-4- 6 =-13

And -13 =-13

57. 0 __________ -2

Solution: >:0>-2

58. 1+2 + 3________ (-1 ) + (-2) + (-3)

Solution: >: 1 +2+3=6

(-1) + (-2) + (-3) =-l-2-3 =-6

And 6 > -6

59. Match the items of Column I with that of Column II:

Solution:

Match the items of Column I with that of column II

(i)–>(B), (ii)–> (E), (iii) —> (B), (iv) –> (A),(v) –> (B)

(i) The additive inverse of +2 is -2.
(ii) The greatest negative integer is -1.
(iii) The greatest negative even integer is -2.
(iv) The smallest integer 0 is greater than every negative integer.
(v) Predecessor and successor of -1 are -2 and 0 respectively.

∴ Sum = -2 + 0 = -2

60. Compute each of the following:

(1) 30 + (-25) + (-10)
(2) (-20) + (-5)
(3) 70 + (-20) + (-30)
(4) -50 + (-60) + 50
(5) 1 + (-2) + (-3) + (-4)
(6) 0 + (-5) + (-2)
(7) 0- (-6)- (+6)
(8) 0-2 -(-2)

Solution: (1) 30 + (-25) + (-10) = 30 + (-25- 10) = 30 + (-35) = 30- 35 = -5

(2) (-20) + (-5) = -20-5 = -25

(3) 70 + (-20) + (-30) = 70 + (-20- 30) = 70 + (-50) = 70- 50 = 20

(4) -50 + (-60) + 50 = (-50 -60) + 50 = -110 + 50 = -60

(5) 1 + (-2) + (-3) + (-4) =1 +(-2-3-4)=1+ (-9) =1- 9 = -8

(6) 0 + (-5) + (-2) 0 + (-5 -2) « 0 + (-7) = 0- 7 = -7

(7)0- (-6)- (+6) = 0 + 6- 6 = 6- 6 = 0

(8) 0- 2- (-2) = 0- 2 + 2 = -2 + 2 = 0

61. If we denote the height of a place above sea level by a positive integer and depth below the sea level by a negative integer, write the following using integers with the appropriate signs:

(1) 200 m above sea level
(2) 1 00 m below sea level
(3) 10m above sea level
(4) sea level

Solution: (1) 200 m above sea level = + 200

(2) 100 m below sea level =- 100

(3) 10 m above sea level = + 10

(4) Sea level = 0

62. Write the opposite of each of the following :

(1) Decrease in size
(2) Failure
(3) Profit of? 10
(4) 1000 AD
(5) Rise in water level
(6) 60 km south
(7)10m above the danger mark of river Ganga
(8) 20 m below the danger mark of the river Brahmaputra
(9) Winning by a margin of 2000 votes
(10)Depositing? 100 in the Bank account
(11) 20°C rise in temperature.

Solution: (1) Increase in size.

(2) Success.

(3) Loss of? 10

(4) 1000 BC

(5) Fall in water level.

(6) 60 km north.

(7)10 m below the danger mark of river Ganga.

(8) 20 m above the danger mark of the river Brahmaputra.

(9) Losing by a margin of 2000 votes.

(10)Withdrawing ? 100 from the Bank account.

(11) 20°C fall in temperature.

63. Temperature of a place at 12:00 noon was +5°C. Temperature increased by 3°C in first hour and decreased by 1°C in the second hour. What was the temperature at 2:00 pm?

Solution:

Given

Temperature of a place at 12:00 noon was +5°C. Temperature increased by 3°C in first hour and decreased by 1°C in the second hour.

Temperature at 12 : 00 noon = + 5°C

Temperature at 1 : 00 p.m. = 5°C + 3°C = 8°C

And temperature at 2 : 00 p.m. = 8°C- 1°C = 7°C

64. Write the digits 0, 1,2, 3, 9 in this order and insert ‘+’ or between them to get the result 3.

Solution: The digits can be written as 0-1-2-3-4-5-6+7+8+9=3

65. Write the integer which is its own additive inverse.

Solution: 0 is the integer which is its own additive inverse

66. Write six distinct integers whose sum is 7.

Solution: 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 + (-2) + (-3) = 7

The six distinct integers are 1, 2, 3, 6, -2 and -3.

67. Write the integer which is 4 more than its additive inverse.

Solution: Let x be the required integer.

According to question,

x = 4 + (-x), where (-x) is the additive inverse of x.

=> x = 4-x => x + x = 4

=> 2x = 4 => x = 2

The required integer is 2.

68. Write the integer which is 2 less than its additive inverse.

Solution: Let the required integer be x.

According to question,

x = (-x)- 2, where -x is the additive inverse of x.

x=-x-2 => x + x = -2

2x = -2 => x = —1

69. Write two integers whose sum is less than both the integers.

Solution: We can take any two negative integers, i.e., -2 and -4.

Sum = -2 + (-4) = -2- 4 = -6, which is less than both -2 and -4.

70. Write two distinct integers whose sum is equal to one of the integers.

Solution: Two distinct integers whose sum is equal to one of the integer, then one must be 0 in them.

Let us take 0 and 4.

Sum = 0 + 4 =4.

71. Using number line, how do you compare

(1) two negative integers?
(2) two positive integers?
(3) one positive and one negative integer?

Solution: Since, the integer lying on right is greater than the integer lying on left.

In all of the given cases (1), (2) and (3), we can compare by using the number line by observing which one of the given integers lie
on tine right or left.

72. Observe the following : 1 +2-3+4+5-6-7+8-9=-5 Change one’-‘sign as’+’sign to get the sum 9.

Solution: On observing the given expression, l + 2- 3 + 4 +5-6- 7 +8- 9 = -5, we noticed that (-7) should be replaced by (+7) to get a result of 9.

Thus, 1+2-3+4+5-6+7+8-9
= (l+2 + 4 + 5 + 7 + 8)-(3 + 6 + 9)
= 27-18 = 9

73. Arrange the following integers in the ascending order: -2, 1,0, -3, 4, -5

Solution: Ascending order of given integers is, -5, -3, -2, 0,1, 4

74. Arrange the following integers in the descending order: -3, 0, -1,-4, -6

Solution: Descending order of given integers is, 0, -1, -3, -4, -6

75. Write two integers whose sum is 6 and difference is also 6.

Solution: We have, 6 + 0 = 6,

6-0 = 6

The required two integers are 6 and 0.

76. Write five integers which are less than -100 but greater than -1 50.

Solution: The required five integers which are less than -100 but greater than -150 are -101,-102, -103, -104 and -105.

77. Write four pairs of integers which are at the same distance from 2 on the number line.

Solution: There are many pairs of integers which are at the same distance from 2 i.e., (1,3), (0,4), (-1, 5) and (-2, 6)

There are many pairs of integers which are at the same distance from 2

78. The sum of two integers is 30. If one of the integers is -42, then find the other.

Solution:

Given

The sum of two integers is 30. If one of the integers is -42

Let the required integer be x.

According to question,

x + (-42) = 30

=>x -42 = 30

=> x = 30 + 42 = 72

79. Sum of two integers is -80. If one of the integers is -90, then find the other.

Solution:

Given

Sum of two integers is -80. If one of the integers is -90

Let the required integer be x.

According to question,

x + (-90) = -80

=> x- 90 =- 80 => x = -80 + 90 = 10

80. If we are at 8 on the number line, in which direction should we move to reach the integer

(1) -5
(2) 11
(3) 0?

Solution: (1) If we are at 8 on the number line, then to reach the integer -5, we must move towards the left on the number line.

(2) If we are at 8 on the number line, then to reach the integer 11, we must move towards the right on the number line.

(3) If we are at 8 on the number line, then to reach the integer 0, we must move towards the left on the number line.

81. Using the number line, write the integer which is

(1) 4 more than -5
(2) 3 less than 2
(3) 2 less than -2

Solution: (1) We want to know an integer 4 more than -5.

So, we start from -5 and proceed 4 steps to the right, then we obtain -1 as shown below.

We want to know an integer 4 more than -5

Hence, 4 more than -5 is -1.

(2) We want to know an integer 3 less than 2.

So, we start from 2 and proceed 3 steps to the left, then we obtain -1 as shown below.

So, we start from 2 and proceed 3 steps to the left, then we obtain -1 as shown below

Hence, 3 less than 2 is -1.

(3) We want to know an integer 2 less than-2.

So, we start from -2 and proceed 2 steps to the left, then we obtain -4 as shown below.

So, we start from -2 and proceed 2 steps to the left, then we obtain -4 as shown below

Hence, 2 less than -2 is -4

82. Find the value of 49 -(-40) -(-3) + 69

Solution: We have,

49- (-40)- (-3) + 69

= 49 + 40 + 3 + 69 = 161

The value of 49 -(-40) -(-3) + 69= 161

83. Subtract -5308 from the sum [(-2100) + (-2001)1]

Solution: We have, [(-2100) + (-2001)]

= [-2100-2001]

= -4101

Required difference = —4101- (-5308)

= -4101 + 5308 = 1207

NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes

Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes

Exercise – 5.1

1. What is the disadvantage in comparing line segments by mere observation?

Solution: There may be chance of error due to improper viewing.

2. Why is it better to use a divider than a ruler, while measuring the length of a line segment?

Solution: It is better to use a divider than a ruler, because the thickness of the ruler may cause difficulties in reading of the length of a line segment. However, a divider gives accurate measurement.

3. Draw any line segment, say AB. Take any point C lying in between A and B. Measure the lengths of AB, BC and AC. Is AB=AC + CS? [Note : If A, B, C are any three points on a line such that AC + CB = AB, then we can be sure that C lies between A and B.]

Solution: AB = 4 cm, AC = 2 cm, CB = 2 cm

Hence, AC + CB = 2 cm + 2 cm = 4 cm = AB

Yes, AB = AC + CB.

Read and Learn More Class 6 Maths Exemplar Solutions

4. If A, B, C are three points on a line such that AB-5 cm, BC= 3 cm and AC=8 cm, which one of them lies between the other two?

Solution:

Given

A, B, C are three points on a line such that AB-5 cm, BC= 3 cm and AC=8 cm

Since, AC is the longest line segment.

Thus B is the point lying between A and C.

5. Verify, whether D is the mid point of AG.

Verify, whether D is the mid point of AG

Solution: AD= 3 units, DG = 3 units, AD = DG

Thus, D is Thw mid- point od AG.

6. If B is the mid point of AC and C is the mid point of BD, where A, B, C, D lie on a straight line, say why AB = CD?

Solution: B is the mid point of AC.

AB = BC …………..(1)

And C is the mid point of BD.

BC = CD ……………(2)

From (1) and (2), we get

AB = CD

7. Draw five triangles and measure their sides. Check in each case, if the sum of the lengths of any two sides is always less than the third side.

Solution: Sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle can never be less than length of the third side.

Draw five triangles and measure their sides

Exercise – 5.2

1. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through, when it goes from

(1) 3 to 9
(2) 4 to z7
(3) 7 to 10
(4) 12 to 9
(5) 1 to 10
(6) 6 to 3

Solution: (1)1/2 or two right angles

(2)1/4 or one right angle

(3)1/4 or one right angle

(4)3/4 or three right angles

(5)3/4 or three right angles

(6)3/4 or three right angles

2. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it

(1) starts at 12 and makes 1/2 of a revolution, clockwise?
(2) starts at 2 and makes 1/2 of a revolution, clockwise?
(3) starts at 5 and makes 1/4 of a revolution, clockwise?
(4) starts at 5 and makes 3/4 of a revolution, clockwise?

Solution: (1) At 6

(2) At 8

(3) At 8

(4) At 2

3. Which direction will you face if you start facing

(1) eastand make 1/2 ofa revolution clockwise?
(2) east and make 1×1/2 of a revolution clockwise?
(3) west and make 3/4 of a revolution anti clock wise?
(4)south and make one full revolution?
(Should we specify clockwise or anti-clockwise for this last question? Why not?)

Solution: (1) West

(2) West

(3) North

(4) South

No, it is not necessary to specify because whether we turn clockwise or anti-clockwise, one full revolution will bring us back to the
original position.

4. What part of a revolution have you turned through if you stand facing

(1) east and turn clockwise to face north?
(2) south and turn clockwise to face east?
(3) west and turn clockwise to face east7

Solution: (1) 3/4

(2) 3/4

(3) 1/2

5. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it goes from

(1) 3 to 6
(2) 2 to 8
(3) 5 to 11
(4) 10 to 1
(5) 12 to 9
(6) 12 to 6

Solution: (1) One right angle

(2) Two right angles

(3) Two right angles

(4) One right angle

(5) Three right angles

(6) Two right angles

6. How many right angles do you make if you start facing

(1) south and turn clockwise to west?
(2) north and turn anti-clockwise to east?
(3) west and turn to west?
(4) south and turn to north?

Solution: (1) One right angle

(2) Three right angles

(3) Four right angles

(4) Two right angles

7. Where will the hour hand of a clock stop if it starts

(1) from 6 and turns through 1 right angle?
(2) from 8 and turns through 2 right angles?
(3) from 1 0 and turns through 3 right angles?
(4) from 7 and turns through 2 straight angles?

Solution: (1) At 9

(2) At 2

(3) At 7

(4) At 7

Exercise – 5.3

1. Match the following:

(i) Straight angle                (1) Less than one-fourth of a revolution

(ii) Right angle                   (2) More than half a revolution

(iii) Acute angle                 (3) Half of a revolution

(iv) Obtuse angle              (4) One-fourth of a revolution

(v) Reflex angle                 (5) Between 1/4 and 1/3 of a revolution

Solution: (i)—> (3); (ii)—> (4); (iii)—> (1);(iv)—>(5);(v)—>(2)

2. Classify each one of the following angles as right, straight, acute, obtuse or reflex :

Classify each one of the following angles

Solution: (a) Acute angle

(b) Obtuse angle

(c) Right angle

(d) Reflex angle

(e) Straight angle

(f) Acute angle

Exercise – 5.4

1. What is the measure of (i) a right angle? (ii) a straight angle?

Solution: (1) 90°

90°

(2) 180°

180°

2. Say True or False:

(1) The measure of an acute angle < 90°.
(2) The measure of an obtuse angle < 90°.
(3) The measure of a reflex angle > 1 80°.
(4) The measure of one complete revolution = 360°.
(5) If m∠A = 53° and m∠B = 35°, then m∠A > m∠B.

Solution: (1) True

(2) False

Since, measure of an obtuse angle is greater than 90° and less than 180°.

(3) True

(4) True

(5) True

3. Write down the measures of

(1) some acute angles.
(2) some obtuse angles. (give at least two examples of each).

Solution: (1) Measures of 2 acute angles are 35°, 20″

(2) Measures of 2 obtuse angles are 110°,135°

4. Measure the angles given below using the Protractor and write down the measure.

Measure the angles given below

Solution: (a) Near about 40°

(b) Near about 130°

(c) Near about 90°

(d) Near about 60°, 120°, 90°

Note: Students can measure the angles exactly with the help of protractor.

5. Which angle has a large measure ? First estimate and then measure.

Measure of Angle A =
Measure of Angle B =

Which angle has a large measure

Solution: By estimating, we observe that ZB has a large measure.

∠A = near about 40° and ∠B = near about 65°.

Note: Students can measure the angles exactly with the help of protractor.

6. From these two angles which has larger measure? Estimate and then confirm by measuring them

From these two angles which has larger masure

Solution: Second angle has larger measure.

First angle is near about .30″ and second angle is near about 70″.

Note: Students can measure the angles exactly with the help of protractor

7. Fill in the blanks with acute, obtuse, right or straight:

(1) An angle whose measure is less than that of a right angle is___________.

(2) An angle whose measure is greater than that of a right angle is____________.

(3) An angle whose measure is the sum of the measures of two right angles is__________.

(4) When the sum of the measures of two angles is that of a right angle, then each one of them is___________.

(5) When the sum of the measures of two angles is that of a straight angle and if one of them is acute then the other should be_____________.

Solution: (1) Acute

(2) Obtuse

(3) Straight

(4) Acute

(5) Obtuse

8. Find the measure of the angle shown in each figure. (First estimate with your eyes and then find the actual measure with a protractor).

Find the measure of the angle shown in each figure

Solution: (1) By estimating with our eyes, we came to know that the measure of angle is 30°.

(2) By estimating with our eyes, we came to know that the measure of angle is 120°.

(3) By estimating with our eyes, we came to know that the measure of angle is 60°.

(4) By estimating with our eyes, we came to know that the measure of angle is 150°.

Note: Students can measure the angles exactly with the help of protractor.

9. Find the angle measure between the hands of the clock in each figure :

Find the angle measure between the hands of clock

Solution: (1) 90° (Right angle)

(2) 30° (Acute angle)

(3) 180° (Straight angle)

10. Investigate In the given figure, the angle measures 30°. Look at the same figure through a magnifying glass. Does the angle becomes larger? Does the size of the angle change?

In the given figure, the angle measures 30°

Solution: No, the measure of angle will be same.

11. Measure and classify each angle:

Measure and classify each angle

Measure and classify each angle table

Solution:

Measure and classify each angle table 1

Note: Students can measure the angles exactly with the help of protractor.

Exercise 5.5

1. Which of the following arc models for perpendicular lines :

(1) The adjacent edges of a table top.
(2) The lines of a railway track.
(3) The line segments forming the letter ‘L’.
(4) The letter V.

Solution: (1) Perpendicular

(2) Not perpendicular

(3) Perpendicular

(4) Not perpendicular

2. Let PQ be the perpendicular to the line segment XY. Let PQ and XY intersect in the point A. What is the measure of ∠PAY1

Solution: ∠PAY = 90°

Angle PAY = 90°

3. There are two set-squares in your box. What are the measures of the angles that are formed at their corners? Do they have any angle measure that is common?

Solution: One set-square has angles 45°, 90°, 45° and other set-square has angles 60°, 90°, 30°.

Yes, they have angle measure 90° as common.

4. Study the diagram. The line / is perpendicular to linem

(1) Is CE = EG?

Study the diagram. The line l is perpendicular to line m

(2) Does PE bisect CGI
(3) Identify any two line segments for which PE is the perpendicular bisector.
(4) Are these true?
(i) AC>FG
(ii) CD = GH
(iii) BC < EH.

Solution: (1) Yes, both measure 2 units.

(2) Yes, because CE = EG

(3) BH and DF are two line segments for which PE is the perpendicular bisector.

(4) (i) True

Since, AC = 2 units and FG =1 unit.
AC>FG

(ii) True
Since, CD = GH= 1 unit

(iii) True
Since, BC = 1 unit, EH = 3 units

BC < EH

Exercise – 5.6

1. Name the types of following triangles:

(1) Triangle with lengths of sides 7 cm, 8 cm and 9 cm.
(2) ΔABC with AB = 8.7 cm, AC = 7 cm and BC = 6 cm.
(3) ΔPQR such that PQ = QR = PR = 5 cm.
(4) ΔDEF with m∠D = 90°
(5) ΔXYZ with m∠Y = 90° and XY = YZ.
(6) ΔLMN with m∠L= 30°, m∠M = 70° and m∠N= 80°.

Solution: (1) Scalene triangle
(2) Scalene triangle
(3) Equilateral triangle
(4) Right-angled triangle
(5) Isosceles right-angled triangle
(6) Acute-angled triangle

2. Match the following :

Measures of Triangle                                                              Type of Triangle

(i) 3 sides of equal                                                               (1) Scalene length
(ii) 2 sides of equal length                                                   (2) Isosceles right
(iii) All sides are of different length                                     (3) Obtuse angled
(iv) 3 acute angles                                                               (4) Right angled
(v) 1 right angle                                                                   (5) Equilateral
(vi) 1 obtuse angle                                                              (6) Acute angled
(vii) 1 right angle with two sides of equal length               (7) Isosceles

(i) -> (5); (ii) -» (7); (iii) -> (1); (iv) -> (6); (v) —> (4); (vi) —> (3); (vii) —> (2)

3. Name each of the following triangles in two different ways: (you may judge the nature of the angle by observation)

Name each of the following trianglesName each of the following triangles 1

Solution: (a) Acute angled triangle and Isosceles triangle

(b) Right-angled triangle and Scalene triangle

(c) Obtuse-angled triangle and Isosceles triangle

(d) Right-angled triangle and Isosceles triangle

(e) Acute angled triangle and Equilateral triangle

(f) Obtuse-angled triangle and Scalene triangle

4. Try to construct triangles using match sticks. Some are shown here. Can you make a triangle with

(1) 3 matchsticks?
(2) 4 matchsticks?
(4) 6 matchsticks?
(3) 5 matchsticks?
(Remember you have to use all the available matchsticks in each case)

Name the type of triangle in each case. If you cannot make a triangle, think of reasons for it.

Try to construct triangles using match sticks

Solution: (1) Yes, it is possible to make a triangle with 3 matchsticks because sum of lengths of two sides is greater than the length of third side.

Yes, it is possible to make a triangle

(2) No, it is not possible to make a triangle with 4 matchsticks because sum of lengths of two sides is equal to the length of third side.

(3) Yes, it is possible to make a triangle with 5 matchsticks because sum of lengths of two sides is greater than the length of third side.

Yes, it is possible to make a triangle with 5 matchsticks

(4) Yes, it is possible to make a triangle with the help of 6 matchsticks because sum of lengths of two sides is greater than the length of third side.

Yes, it is possible to make a triangle with 6 matchstics

Exercise – 5.7

1. Say True or False:

(1) Each angle of a rectangle is a right angle.
(2) The opposite sides of a rectangle are equal in length.
(3) The diagonals of a square are perpendicular to one another.
(4) All the sides of a rhombus are of equal length.
(5) All the sides of a parallelogram are of equal length.
(6) The opposite sides of a trapezium are parallel.

Solution: (1) True

(2) True

(3) True

(4) True

(5) False

Since, opposite sides of a parallelogram are of equal length.

(6) False

Since, only one pair of opposite sides of a trapezium is parallel.

2. Give reasons for the following:

(1) A square can be thought of as a special rectangle.
(2) A rectangle can be thought of as a special parallelogram.
(3) A square can be thought of as a special rhombus.
(4) Squares, rectangles, parallelograms are all quadrilaterals.
(5) Square is also a parallelogram.

Solution: (1) Because its all angles are right angle and opposite sides are equal.

(2) Because its opposite sides are equal and parallel.

(3) Because its all sides are equal and diagonals are perpendicular to each other.

(4) Because all of them have four sides’.

(5) Because its opposite sides are equal and parallel.

3. A figure is said to be regular if its sides are equal in length and angles are equal in measure. Can you identify the regular quadrilateral?

Solution:

Given

A figure is said to be regular if its sides are equal in length and angles are equal in measure.

A square is a regular quadrilateral.

Exercise – 5.8

1. Examine whether the following are polygons. If any one among them is not, say why?

Examine whether the following are polygons

Solution: (1) As it is not a closed figure, therefore, it is not a polygon.

(2) It is a polygon because it is closed by line segments.

(3) It is not a polygon because it is not made by line segments.

(4) It is not a polygon because it is not made by only line segments and also it has curved surface.

2. Name each polygon.

Name each polygon

Name each polygon 1

Make two more examples of each of these.

Solution:

(a) Quadrilateral

(b) Triangle

(c) Pentagon

(d) Octagon

Two more examples of each:

Two more examples of each

3. Draw a rough sketch of a regular hexagon. Connecting any three of its vertices, draw a triangle. Identify the type of the triangle you have drawn.

Solution:

Draw a rough sketch of a regular hexagon

ABCDEF is a regular hexagon and ΔAEF is a triangle formed by joining AE. Hence, ΔAEF is an isosceles triangle.

4. Draw a rough sketch of a regular octagon. (Use squared paper if you wish). Draw a rectangle by joining exactly four of the vertices of the octagon.

Solution:

Draw a rough sketch of a regular octagon

ABCDEFGH is a regular octagon and CDGH is a rectangle formed by joining C and H; D and G.

5. A diagonal is a line segment that joins any two vertices of the polygon and is not a side of the polygon. Draw a rough sketch of a pentagon and draw its diagonals.

Solution:

Given

A diagonal is a line segment that joins any two vertices of the polygon and is not a side of the polygon

Draw a rough sketch of a pentagon

ABODE is the required pentagon and its diagonals are AD, AC, BE, BD and CE.

Section-2 NCERT Exemplar

Directions: In each of the questions1 to 11, out of four options only one is correct. Write the correct answer.

1. Measures of the two angles between hour and minute hands of a clock at 9 O’ clock are

(1) 60°, 300°
(2) 270°, 90°
(4) 30°, 330°
(3) 75°, 285°

Solution: (2): We know that 1 minute = 6°

Measures of the two angles

The number of minutes between hour and minute hands of a clock at 9 O’ clock is 15 and 45.

The required angles are 15 * 6° = 90° and 45×6° = 270°

2. If a bicycle wheel has 48 spokes, then the angle between a pair of two consecutive spokes is

\(\text { (A) }\left(5 \frac{1}{2}\right)\)

 

\(\text { (B) }\left(7 \frac{1}{2}\right)\)

 

\(\text { (C) }\left(\frac{2}{11}\right)\)

 

\(\text { (D) }\left(\frac{2}{15}\right)\)

Solution: A bicycle wheel has 48 spokes.

The angle formed in circle is 360°.

The angle between a pair of two consecutive spokesr is 360 + 48 = \(7 \frac{24}{48}=7 \frac{1}{2}\)

3. In the given figure, ∠XYZ cannot be written as

In the given figure, ∠XYZ cannot be written as

(1)∠Y
(2) ∠ZXY
(3) ∠ZYX
(4) ∠XYP

Solution: (2): In the given figure, the name of angles formed are ∠XYP, ∠XYZ, ∠PYX and ∠ZYX

Thus, ∠ZXY is not a correct option.

4. In the given figure, if point A is shifted to point B along the ray PX such that PB = 2PA, then the measure of ∠BPY is

In the given figure, if point A is shifted to point

(1) greater than 45°
(2) Y45°
(3) less than 45°
(d) 90°

Solution: (2) : Since, the increase and decrease in the length of arms of an angle does not affect the angle made by them.
∠BPY = 45°

5. The number of obtuse angles In figure Is

The number of obtuse angles In figure Is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

Solution: (3): The obtuse angles formed in the given figure are ∠AOD = 20° + 45° + 65° = 130°

∠BOD = 45° + 65° = 110°, ∠COE = 65° + 30° = 95° and ∠BOE = 45° + 65° + 30° = 140°

Thus, there are total  4 obtuse angles formed.

Thus, there are total 4 obtuse angles formed

6. The number of triangles in the given figure is

The number of triangles in the given figure is

(1) 10
(2) 12
(4) 14
(3) 13

Solution: (3): We have,

The names of triangles formed in the given figure

The names of triangles formed in the given figure are

ΔABC, ΔABD, ΔADC, ΔAFG, ΔAEG, ΔAFE, ΔFGD, ΔEGD, ΔFED, ΔFBD, ΔDEC, ΔAFD, ΔAED

7. If the sum of two angles is greater than 180°, then which of the following is not possible for the two angles?

(1) One obluso angle and one acute angle
(2) One reflex angle and one acute angle
(3) Two obtuse angles
(4) Two right angles

Solution: (4): Since, the sum of two rijÿht angles is 180°.

8. If the sum of two angles is equal to an obtuse angle, then which of the following is not possible?

(1) One obtuse angle and one acute angle
(2) One right angle and one acute angle
(3) Two acute angles
(4) Two right angles

Solution: (4): Since, the sum of two right angles is 180°, which is a straight angle, not an obtuse angle.

9. In the given figure, AB = BC and AD = BD = DC. The number of isosceles triangles in the figure is

In the given figure, AB = BC and AD = BD = DC

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

Solution: (3):

Given

In the given figure, AB = BC and AD = BD = DC.

We have, AB = BC and AD = BD = DC.

ΔABD, ΔBDC and ΔABC all are isosceles triangles.

There are 3 isosceles triangles formed in the given figure.

10. In the given figure, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC. The number of right triangles in the figure is

In the given figure, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

Solution: (3):

Given

In the given figure, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC.

We have, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC

∠BDA = ∠CDA = ∠BAC = 90°

There are 3 right triangles formed in the given figure.

11. In the given figure, PQ⊥ RQ, PQ = 5 cm and QR = 5 cm. Then ΔPQR is

In the given figure, PQ ⊥ RQ, PQ = 5 cm

(1) a right triangle but not isosceles
(2) an isosceles right triangle
(3) isosceles but not a right triangle
(4) neither isosceles nor right triangle

Solution: (13) :

Given

In the given figure, PQ⊥ RQ, PQ = 5 cm and QR = 5 cm.

We have, PQ⊥ RQ, PQ = 5 cm and QR = 5 cm, which shows that in a triangle, two sides are equal and their included angle is 90°.

ΔPQR is an isosceles right triangle

Directions: In questions 12 to 17,fill in the blanks to make the statements true.

12. An angle greater than 180° and less than a complete angle is called________.

Solution: Reflex angle

13. A pair of opposite sides of a trapezium are

Solution: Parallel

14. In the given figure,

In the given figure

(1) ∠AOD is a/an __________ angle
(2) ∠COA is a/an__________ angle.
(3) ∠AOE is a/an__________ angle.

Solution: (1) Right : ∠AOD = 30° + 20° + 40° = 90°

(2) Acute : ∠COA = 20° + 30° = 50°

(3) Obtuse : ∠AOE = 40° + 40° + 20° + 30° = 130°

15. The number of triangles in figure is Their names are________.

The number of triangles in figure is

Solution: ΔAOB, ΔOC, ΔCOD, ΔCAB and ΔACD

16. Number of angles less than 180” in given figure is_______ and their names are_______.

Number of angles less than 180” in given figure

Solution: 12, ∠ABO, ∠BAO, ∠AOB, ∠BOD, ∠COD, ∠ODC, ∠OCD, ∠OCA, ∠CAO, ∠AOC, ∠BAC and ∠ACD.

17. The number of right angles in a straight angle is__________ and that in a complete angle is___________

Solution: 2, 4 : The number of right angles in a straight angle is 2 and that in a complete angle is 4.

Directions: State whether the statements given in questions 18 to 20 are true (T) or false (F).

18. A horizontal line and a vertical line always intersect at right angles.

Solution: True

19. If the arms of an angle on the paper are increased, the angle increases.

Solution: False

If the arms of an angle on the paper are increasing or decreasing, it doesn’t affect the angle made by them.

20. If the arms of an angle on the paper are decreased, the angle decreases.

Solution: False

21. Write down fifteen angles (less than 180°) involved in given figure.

Write down fifteen angles

Solution: The names of fifteen angles (less than 180°) involved in figure are :
∠AEC, ∠ADB, ∠EAD, ∠EFD, ∠EFB, ∠DFC, ∠FBC, ∠FCB, ∠BFC, ∠ABC, ∠ACB, ∠DCF, ∠FDC, ∠EBF and ∠BEF.

22. Is it possible for the same

(1) line segment to have two different lengths?
(2) angle to have two different measures?

Solution: (1) No, it is not possible for the same line segment to have two different lengths.

(2) No, it is not possible for the same angle to have two different measures.

23. Will the measure of ∠ABC and of ∠CBD make measure of ∠ABD in given figure?

Will the measure of ∠ABC and of ∠CBD

Solution: Yes, ∠ABD- ∠ABC + ∠CBD

=> ∠ABD is the sum of ∠ABC and ∠CBD.

24. Will the lengths of line segment AB and line segment BC make the length of line segment AC in given figure?

Will the lengths of line segment AB

Solution: Yes, the length of line segment AC is the sum of the lengths of line segment AB and BC.

25. Look at a given figure. Mark a point

Look at a given figure. Mark a point

(1) A which is in the interior of both∠1 and ∠2.
(2) B which is in the interior of only ∠1.
(3) Point C in the interior of ∠1.
Now, state whether points B and C lie in the interior of ∠2 also.

Solution: Yes, the given figure shows that the points B and C lie in the interior of ∠2 also.

26. In which of the following figures,

(1) perpendicular bisector is shown?
(2) bisector Is shown?
(3) only bisector is shown?
(4) only perpendicular is shown?

In which of the following figures

Solution:

(1) Figure (ii) shows the perpendicular bisector.

(2) Figure (ii) and (iii) shows the bisector.

(3) Figure (iii) shows only the bisector.

(4) Figure (i) shows only the perpendicular.

27. In given figure,

In given figure

(1) name any four angles that appear to be acute angles.
(2) name any two angles that appear to be obtuse angles.

Solution: (1) Acute angles: ∠ADE, ∠AEB,∠ABE and ∠ECD.

(2) Obtuse angles: ∠BCD and ∠BAD.

28. In given figure,

In given figure line

(1) is AC + CB = AB?
(2) is AB + AC =CB?
(3) is AB + BC = CA?

Solution: (1) Yes, AC + CB = AB

(2) No, AB- AC = CB

(3) No, AB-BC = CA

29. In given figure,

In given figure hexagon

(1) What is AE + EC?
(2) What is AC-EC?
(3) What is BD-BE?
(4) What is BD-DE?

Solution: (1) AE+EC=AC

(2) AC-EC=AE

(3) BD-BE = ED

(4) BD- DE = BE

30. Using the information given, name the right angles in each part of given figures.

(1) BA⊥BD

BA perpendicular to BD

(2) RT⊥ST

Rt perpendicular to st

(3) AC⊥BD

AC perpendicular to BD

(4) RS⊥RW

RS perpendicular to RW

(5) AC⊥BD

AC Perpendicular to BD

(6) AE⊥CE

AE Perpendicular to CE

(7) AC⊥CD

AC perpendicular to CD

(8) OP⊥AB

OP Perpendicular to AB

Solution: (1) BA ⊥ BD, The right angle is ∠ABD.

(2) RT ⊥ ST, The right angle is ∠RTS

(3) AC⊥BD, The right angles are ∠ACD and ∠ACB.

(4) RS⊥RW, The right angle is ∠SRW.

(5) AC ⊥ BD, The right angles are ∠AED, ∠AEB,∠BEC and ∠CED.

(6) AE ⊥CE, The right angle is ∠AEC.

(7) AC ⊥ CD, The right angle is ∠ACD.

(8) OP⊥AB, The right angles are ∠AKO, ∠AKP, ∠BKO and ∠BKP.

31. What conclusion can be drawn from each part of given figures, if

(1) DB is the bisector of ∠ADC?

DB is the bisector of ∠ADC

(2) BD bisects ∠ABC?

BD bisects ∠ABC

(3) DC is the bisector of ∠ADB, CA ⊥ DA and CB ⊥ DB?

DC is the bisector of ∠ADB,

Solution: (1) DB is the bisector of ∠ADC.

∠ADB =∠CDB

(2) BD bisects ∠ABC.

∠ABD = ∠CBD

(3) DC is the bisector of ∠ADB, CA ⊥ DA and CB ⊥ DB

∠ADC = ∠BDC, ∠CAD = ∠CBD =90°

32. An angle is said to be trisected, if it is divided into three equal parts. If in a given figure, ∠BAC = ∠CAD = ∠DAE, how many trisectors are there for ∠BAE?

An angle is said to be trisected

Solution:

Given

An angle is said to be trisected, if it is divided into three equal parts. If in a given figure, ∠BAC = ∠CAD = ∠DAE,

We have given, ∠BAC = ∠CAD = ∠DAE

There are two trisectors namely, AC and AD.

33. Can we have two acute angles whose sum is

(1) an acute angle? Why or why not?
(2) a right angle? Why or why not?
(3) an obtuse angle? Why or why not?
(4) a straight angle? Why or why not?
(5) a reflex angle? Why or why not?

Solution: (1) Yes, v the sum of two acute angles can be the acute angle.

E.g., 30° and 40° are two acute angles and their sum = 30° + 40° = 70°, which is also an acute angle.

(2) Yes, v the sum of two acute angles be a right angle.

E.g., 30° and 60° are two acute angles and their sum = 30° + 60° = 90°, which is a right angle.

(3) Yes, the sum of two acute angles can be an obtuse angle.

E.g., 45° and 60° are two acute angles and their sum = 45° + 60° = 105°, which is an obtuse angle.

(4) No, v the sum of two acute angles is always less than 180°.

(5) No, v the sum of two acute angles is always less than 180°.

34. Can we have two obtuse angles whose sum is

(1) a reflex angle? Why or why not?
(2) a complete angle? Why or why not?

Solution: (1) Yes, v the sum of two obtuse angles is always greater than 180°.

E.g., 135° and 100° are two obtuse angles and their sum = 135° + 100° – 235°, which is greater than 180°.

(2) No, v the sum of two obtuse angles is greater than 180° but less than 360°. In the above example, we can see that the sum of 135° and 100° i.e., 235° is greater than 180° but less than 360°.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 4 Basic Geometrical Ideas

Class 6 Maths Chapter 4 Basic Geometrical Ideas

Directions: In each of the questions 1 to 5, out of four options only one is correct. Write the correct answer.

1. The number of lines passing through five points such that no three of them are collinear is

(1) 10
(2) 5
(3) 20
(4) 8

Solution: (1) : Since, total number of points is 5 and we need two points to form a line.

Total number of lines passing through the points is 5 x 2 = 10

2. The number of diagonals in a septagon is

(1) 21
(2) 42
(3) 7
(4) 14

Solution: (4): Since, the number of diagonals in

a polygon =n(n-3)/2

Septagon has 7 sides, i.e., n = 7

The number of diagonals in a septagon

Read and Learn More Class 6 Maths Exemplar Solutions

NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 4 Basic Geometrical Ideas

3. Number of line segments in figure is

Number of line segments in figure is

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20

Solution: (2) : The adjacent figure shows the line segments;

The adjacent figure shows the line segment

AB, BC, CD, AC, AD, BD, AE, BE, CE, DE

Thus, there are 10 line segments.

4. The number of angles in the given figure is

The number of angles in the given figure is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

Solution: (4): The names of angles formed in the given figure are ZAOB, ZAOC, ZAOD, ZBOC, ZBOD, and ZCOD.

There are a total of 6 angles formed.

There are total 6 angles formed

5. A polygon has a prime number of sides. Its number of sides is equal to the sum of the two least consecutive primes. The number of diagonals of the polygon is

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 10

Solution: (2): We have given, the number of sides of a polygon

= Sum of the two least consecutive primes

= 2 +3 =5 [ ∴ 2 and 3 are the least consecutive prime numbers]

The number of diagonals = n(n- 3)/2

where n = 5

=5(5-3)/2=5×2/2=5

Directions: In questions 6 to 14, fill in the blanks to make the statements true

6. The number of diagonals in a hexagon is

Solution: 9 : Number of diagonals = n(n-3)/2

where n = 6

=6(6-3)/2=6×3/2=9

7. In the given figure, points lying in the interior of the triangle PQR are_________, that in the exterior are__________ and that on the triangle itself are__________.

In the given figure, points lying in the interior

Solution: O and S; T and N; P, Q, R and M

8. In the given figure, points A, B, C, D and E are collinear such that AB = BC = CD = DE. Then

Given figure

(1) AD=AB +________
(2) AD=AC +_________
(3) midpoint of AE is_____________
(4) midpoint of CE is__________
(5) AE=_______x AB

Solution: (1) BD: AD=AB + BC + CD=AB + BD

(2) CD:AD = AB + BC+CD=AC + CD

(3) C: AB + BC = CD + DE

=> AC = CE :. Mid point of AE is C.

(4) D :  CD = DE

Mid point of CE is D.

(5) 4 : AB + BC + CD + DE = AE
=> AB+AB+AB + AB = AE ∴ 4AB = AE

9. The number of straight angles in given figure is____________.

The number of straight angles in given figure is

Solution: 4: The number of straight angles in the given figure is 4.

10. The number of common points in the two angles marked in the given figure is_______.

The number of common points in the two angles marked in given figure are two

Solution: Two: The two angles marked; ∠PAQ and ∠PDQ.

The number of common points are 2 and these are P and Q.

11. The number of common points in the two angles marked in a given figure is__________.

The number of common points in the two

Solution: One: The two angles marked; ∠CAB and ∠DAE.

The number of common points is 1 and that is A.

12. The number of common points in the two angles marked in given figure _________.

The number of common points in the two angles marked in given figure

Solution: Three: There are 3 common points in the two angles marked in the given figure and these are P, Q, and R.

13. The number of common points in the two angles marked in a given figure is_______.

The number of common points

Solution: Four: The number of common points in the two angles marked in the given figure is 4 and these are E, D, G and F.

14. The common part between the two angles BAC and DAB in given figure is_____.

The common part between the two angles

Solution: Ray AB

Directions: State whether the statements given in questions 15 to 21 are true (T) or false (F).

15. If line PQ|| line m, then line segment PQ || m.

Solution: True

16. Two parallel lines meet each other at some point.

Solution: False

Two lines in a plane which do not meet even when produced indefinitely in either direction, are known as parallel lines.

17. Measures of ∠ABC and ∠CBA in given figure are the same.

Measures of ABC and CBA in given figure are the same

Solution: True

ABC is same as ∠CBA.

18. Two line segments may intersect at two points.

Solution: False

The intersecting point of any two line segments is only one.

19. Many lines can pass through two given points.

Solution: False

There is only one line which passes through two given points.

20. Only one line can pass through a given point.

Solution: False

There are infinite number of lines which passes through a given point.

21. Two angles can have exactly five points in common.

Solution: False

It can have any number of points.

22. Name all the line segments in given figure.

Name all the line segments in given figure

Solution: The line segments are AB, BC, CD, DE, AC, AD, AE, BD, BE and CE

23. Name the line segments shown in given figure

Name the line segments shown in given figure

Solution: The line segments are AB, BC, CD, DE and EA

24. State the mid points of all the sides of given figure.

State the mid points of all the sides of given figure

Solution: X is a mid-point of AC,

Y is a mid-point of BC and

Z is a mid-point of AB.

25. Name the vertices and the line segments in given figure.

Name the vertices and the line segments

Solution: The vertices are : A, B, C, D and E.

The line segments are : AB, BC, CD, DE, EA, AC and AD.

26. Name the following angles of given figure,using three letters :

Name the following angles of given figure

(1) ∠1
(2) ∠2
(3) ∠3
(4) ∠1+∠2
(5) ∠2 + ∠3
(6) ∠1+∠2 + ∠3
(7) ∠CBA-∠1

Solution:(1) ∠1 = ∠CBD

(2) ∠2 = ∠DBE

(3) ∠3 = ∠EBA

(4) ∠1 +∠2 = ∠CBD + ∠DBE = ∠CBE

(5) ∠2 + ∠3 = ∠DBE +vEBA = ∠DBA

(6) ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 = ∠CBD + ∠DBE + ∠EBA = ∠CBA

(7)∠CBA- ∠1 = ∠CBA- ∠CBD = ∠DBA

27. Name the points and then the line segments in each of the following figures:

Name the points and then the line segments

Solution:(i) Name of the points -> A,B and C.

Name of the line segments —> AB, BC and CA.

(ii) Name of the points —>A,B,C and D.

Name of the line segments —> AB, BC, CD and DA.

(iii) Name of the points —> A, B, C, D and E.

Name of the line segments —> AB, BC, CD, DE, and EA.

(iv) Name of the points —> A, B, C, D, E and F.

Name of the line segments —> AB, CD and EF.

28. Which points in given figures, appear to be mid-points of the line segments? When you locate a mid-point, name the two equal line segments formed by it.

Which points in given figures, appear to be mid points

Solution:(i) The given figure shows there is no mid-point.

(ii) The given figure shows that O is the mid-point of AB and the name of the two equal line segments are AO and OB.

(iii) The given figure shows that D is the mid-point of BC and the name of the two equal line segments are BD and DC.

29. Find out the incorrect statement, if any, in the following : An angle is formed when we have

(1) two rays with a common end-point
(2) two line segments with a common endpoint
(3) a ray and a line segment with a common end-point

Solution: All the three statements (1), (2) and (3) are incorrect.

The common initial point of two rays forms an angle.

30. What is common in the following figures (i) and (ii)? Is figure (i) that of triangle? if not, why?

common in the following figures

Solution: Both the figures (i) and (ii) have 3 line segments.

No, Fig. (i) is not a triangle since the three line segments does not form a closed figure.

31. If two rays intersect, will their point of intersection be the vertex ofan angle of which the rays are the two sides?

Solution: Yes

32. How many points are marked in given figure?

1 line segment

Solution: Two points A and B are marked

33. How many line segments are there in given figure?

1 line segment

Solution: Only one line segment, AB is there.

34. In given figure, how many points are marked? Name them.

3 points

Solution: From the given figure, Three points A, B, and C are marked.

35. How many line segments are there in the given figure? Name them.

3 line segments

Solution: From the given figure, Three line segments, namely AB, BC, and AC are there.

36. In the given figure, how many points are marked? Name them.

4 Points

Solution: From the given figure, Four points A, B, C, and D are marked.

37. In the given figure how many line segments are there? Name them.

4 line segments

Solution: Six line segments, namely AB, AC, AD, BC, BD, and CD.

38. In the given figure, how many points are marked? Name them

5 line segments

Solution: From the given figure, Five points are marked, namely A, B, D, E and C.

39. In given figure how many line segments are there? Name them

10 line segments

Solution: From the given figure, Ten line segments, namely AB, AD, AE, AC, BD, BE, BC, DE, DC and EC.

40. In given figure,O is the centre of the circle.

In the given figure of the circle

(1) Name all chords of the circle.
(2) Name all radii of the circle.
(3) Name a chord, which is not the diameter of the circle.
(4) Shade sectors OAC and OPB.
(5) Shade the smaller segment of the circle formed by CP.

Solution:(1) Name of chords : PC and BA.

(2) Name of radii : PO, OC, OB and OA.

(3) PC is a chord which is not the diameter of the circle

(4) Shade sectors OAC and OPB

(5) Shade the smaller segment of the circle formes by cp

41. Write the name of

(1) vertices
(2) edges, and
(3) faces of the prism shown In given figure.

PRISM

Solution: (1) Vertices: A, B, C, D, E and F.

(2) Edges: AB, BC, AC, DF, FC, BD. EF, ED and AE.

(3) Faces: EACF, EDBA, ABC, DEF and DBCF.

42. How many edges, faces and vertices are there in a sphere?

Solution: In a sphere, edges – 0, faces – 0 and vertices- 0.

43. Draw all the diagonals of a pentagon ABCDE and name them.

Solution: The diagonals of a pentagon ABCDE are AC, AD, BE, BD and EC.

all the diagonals of a pentagon ABCDE

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers

Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers

Directions: In questions 1 to 14, out of the four options, only one is correct. Write the correct answer.

1 Sum of the number of primes between 16 to 80 and 90 to 100 is

(1) 20
(2) 18
(4) 16
(3) 17

Solution: (3): Prime numbers between 16 to 80 are 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73 and 79.

So, there are 16 prime numbers between 16 to 80.

Also, 97 is the only prime number between 90 to 100.

So, there is only a prime number between 90 to 100.

Required sum = 16 +1 = 17

Read and Learn More Class 6 Maths Exemplar Solutions

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers

 

2. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) The HCF of two distinct prime numbers is 1
(2) The HCF of two coprime numbers is 1
(3) The HCF oftwo consecutive even numbers is 2
(4) The HCF of an even and an odd number is even

Solution: (4): The HCF of an even and an odd number is always an odd number.

3. The number of distinct prime factors of the largest 4-digit number is

(1) 2
(3) 5
(2) 3
(4) 11

Solution: (2): The largest 4-digit number is 9999.

Now,

The largest 4-digit number is 9999

9999 = 3 x 3×11 x101

So, distinct prime factors of 9999 are 3, 11 and 101, i.e., 3 distinct prime factors.

4. The number of distinct prime factors of the smallest 5-digit number is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(4) 8
(3) 6

Solution: (1): The smallest 5-digit number is 10000.

Now,

the smallest 5 digit number

10000 = 2x2x2x2x5x5x5x5

So, distinct prime factors of10000 are 2 and 5, i.e., 2 distinct prime factors.

5. If the number 7254*98 is divisible by 22, the digit at* is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 0

Solution: (3): 7254*98 is divisible by 22, if it is divisible by both 2 and 11.

Given number is even, therefore it is divisible by 2.

7254*98 is divisible by 11, if (7 + 5 + * + 8) – (2 + 4 + 9) or (20 + *)- 15 or 5 + * is divisible by 11.

The digit at * should be filled by 6.

6. The largest number which always divides the sum of any pair of consecutive odd numbers is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

Solution:(2): The sum of any pair of consecutive odd numbers comesin the form ofmultiple of 4.

The required largest number is 4.

7. A number is divisible by 5 and 6.It may not be divisible by

(1) 10
(3) 30
(2) 15
(4) 60

Solution: (4): The LCM of 5 and 6 is 30.

And 30 is divisible by 10, 15 and 30 but not by 60.

8. The sum of the prime factors of 1 729 is

(1) 13
(2) 19
(4) 39
(3) 32

Solution: (4): We have,

prime factors of 1729

The prime factors of 1729 = 7 x 13 x 19.

The sum of the prime factors of 1729 = 7+ 13 +19 = 39

9. The greatest number which always divides the product of the predecessor and successor of an odd natural number other than 1, is

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 16
(4) 8

Solution: (2): Since the odd natural numbers other than1 are 3, 5, 7, 9 and so on.

Now, the predecessor and successor of 3 are 2 and 4 respectively, and their product is 2×4 = 8

Similarly, the predecessor and successor of 5 are 4 and 6 respectively and their product is 4 x 6 = 24 and so on.

Thus, the above shows that the greatest number which always divides the product of the predecessor and successor of an odd natural other than 1 is 4.

10. The number of common prime factors of 75, 60,105 is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

Solution: (1): We have,

The number of common prime factors of 75, 60.105

75 = 3 x 5 x 5

60 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 5

105 = 3 x 5 x 7

The common prime factors of 75, 60 and 105 are 3 and 5 i.e., 2 in number.

11. Which of the following pairs is not coprime?

(1) 8,10
(3) 1,3
(2) 11, 12
(4) 31,33

Solution: (1): 8 and 10 are not co-prime numbers.

Their common factor other than 1 is 2

12. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

(1) 1011011
(2) 1111111
(3) 22222222
(4) 3333333

Solution: (3): The difference of the sum of digits of 22222222 at even and odd places is 0. It must be divisible by 11.

13. LCM of10, 15 and 20 is

(1) 30
(2) 60
(4) 180
(3) 90

Solution: (2): We have,

lcm 10 15,20

The LCM of 10, 15 and 20 is 2x2x3x5=60

14. LCM of two numbers is 1 80. Then which of the following is not the HCF of the numbers?

(1) 45
(2) 60
(3) 75
(4) 90

Solution:(3): We have,

hcf of 180

The factors of 180 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 5

75 does not divide 180

75 can not be the HCF of the numbers whose LCM is 180.

Directions: In questions 15 to 32 state whether the given statements are true (T) orfalse (6).

15. Sum of two consecutive odd numbers is always divisible by 4.

Solution: True

16. If a number divides three numbers exactly, it must divide their sum exactly.

Solution: True

17. If a number exactly divides the sum of three numbers, it must exactly divide the numbers separately.

Solution: False

18. If a number is divisible both by 2 and 3, then it is divisible by 12.

Solution: False

Since, a number is divisible by both 2 and 3 implies that it is also divisible by 6.

19. A number with three or more digits is divisible by 6, if the number formed by its last two digits (i.e., ones and tens) is divisible by 6.

Solution: False

A number is divisible by 6 if the number is divisible by both 2 and 3.

20. A number with 4 or more digits is divisible by 8, if the number formed by the last three digits is divisible by 8.

Solution: True

21. If the sum of the digits of a number is divisible by 3, then the number itself is divisible by 9.

Solution: False

If the sum of the digits of a number is divisible by 3, then the number it self is divisible by 3.

22. All numbers which are divisible by 4 may not be divisible by 8.

Solution: True

Since, 12 is divisible by 4 but not by 8.

23. The Highest Common Factor of two or more numbers is greater than their Lowest Common Multiple.

Solution: False

HCF of two or more numbers is smaller than their LCM.

24. LCM of two or more numbers is divisible by their HCF.

Solution: True

25. LCM of two numbers is 28 and their HCF is 8.

Solution: False

The LCM of two numbers i.e., 28 is not divisible by their HCF, i.e., 8.

Their HCF cannot be 8.

26. LCM of two or more numbers may be one of the numbers.

Solution: True

27. HCF of two or more numbers may be one of the numbers.

Solution: True

28. Any two consecutive numbers are coprime.

Solution: True

The common factor of any two consecutive numbers is 1.

29. If the HCF of two numbers is one of the numbers, then their LCM is the other number.

Solution: True

The product of two numbers =HCF * LCM.

30. The HCF of two numbers is smaller than the smaller ofthe numbers.

Solution: False

Since, HCF of two numbers is less than or equal to the smaller of the numbers.

31. The LCM of two numbers is greater than the larger ofthe numbers.

Solution: False

Since, LCM of two numbers is greater than or equal to the larger of the numbers.

32. The LCM of two coprime numbers is equal to the product ofthe numbers.

Solution: True

33. A number is a _________ of each ofits factor.

Solution: Multiple

34.__________ is a factor of every number.

Solution:1

35. The number of factors of a prime number is_______

Solution: 2

36. A number for which the sum of all its factors is equal to twice the number is called a___________ number.

Solution: Perfect

37. The numbers having more than two factors are called___________

Solution: Composite

38. 2 is the only__________

Solution: Prime

39. Two numbers having only 1 as a common factor are called___________numbers.

Solution: Co-prime

40. Number of primes between 1 to 100 is_______.

Solution: 25 : Prime numbers between I to 100,are 2. 3, 5. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47. 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97.

So, there are 25 primes between 1 to 100.

41. If a number has ________in ones place, then it is divisible by 10.

Solution: 0

42. A number is divisible by 5, if it has____________ or in its ones place.

Solution: 0, 5

43. A number is divisible by________if it has any of the digits 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8 in its ones place. 1,1,1

Solution: 2

44. If the sum of the digits in a number is a __________ of 3, then the number is divisible by

Solution: Multiple

45. If the difference between the sum of digits at odd places (from the right) and the sum of digits at even places (from the right) of a number is either 0 or divisible by_____________, then the number is divisible by 11.

Solution: 11

46. The LCM of two or more given numbers is the lowest of their common________.

Solution: Multiple

47. The HCF of two or more given numbers is the highest of their common____________.

Solution: Factors

48. Find the LCM of 80, 96, 125, 160.

Solution: We have,

The LCM of 80, 96, 125 and 160

The LCM of 80, 96, 125 and 160 is = 2x2x2x2x2x3x5x5x5 = 12000

49. Find the LCM of 160, 170 and 90.

Solution: We have,

The LCM of 160, 170 and 190

The LCM of 160, 170 and 190

=2x2x2x2x2x3x3x5x17

= 24480

50. Determine the sum of the four numbers as given below:

(1) successor of 32
(2) predecessor of 49
(3) predecessor of the predecessor of 56
(4) successor of the successor of 67

Solution:

Since, successor of32is 33, predecessor of 49 is 48, predecessor of the predecessor of 56 is 54 and successor of the successor of 67 is 69.

The required sum = 33 + 48 + 54 + 69 = 204

51. Determine the least number which when divided by 3, 4 and 5 leaves remainder 2 in each case.

Solution: We have,

lcm of 3 4 5

Since, the LCM of 3, 4 and 5 is 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 60.

The required number is 60 + 2 = 62

So, 62 is the least number which when divided by 3, 4 and 5 leaves remainder 2 in each case.

52. A merchant has 120 litres of oil of one kind, 180 litres of another kind and 240 litres of a third kind. He wants to sell the oil by filling the three kinds of oil in tins of equal capacity. What should be the greatest capacity of such a tin?

Solution:

Given:

merchant has 120 litres of oil of one kind, 180 litres of another kind and 240 litres of a third kind. He wants to sell the oil by filling the three kinds of oil in tins of equal capacity.

A merchant has 3 kinds of oil with different quantities like 120 litres, 180 litres and 240 litres

Since, he wants lo soli the oil by filling the three kinds of oil in tins of equal capacity, so the greatest capacity of such a tin is the HCF of 120, 180 and 240.

hcf of 180,240,120

Now, 120 = 2x2x2x3x5

180 = 2x2x3x3x5

240 = 2x2x2x2x3x5

The required greatest capacity of a tin

= (2 x 2 x 3 x 5) litres

= 60 litres

The greatest capacity of a tin = 60 litres

53. Find a 4-digit odd number using each of the digits 1, 2, 4 and 5 only once such that when the first and the last digits are interchanged, it is divisible by 4.

Solution: By using the digits 1, 2, 4 and 5 only once, we get a 4 digit odd number 4521.

When we interchanged its first and last digits we get a new number, i.e., 1524 which is divisible by 4.

Thus, the required number is 4521.

54. Using each of the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 only once, determine the smallest 4-digit number divisible by 4.

Solution: By using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 only once, the smallest 4-digit number which is divisible by 4 is 1324.

55. Fatima wants to mail three parcels to three village schools. She finds that the postal charges are 20, 28 and 36, respectively. If she wants to buy stamps only of one denomination, what is the greatest denomination of stamps she must buy to mail the three parcels?

Solution:

Given

Fatima wants to mail three parcels to three village schools. She finds that the postal charges are 20, 28 and 36, respectively.

The postal charges to mail three parcels are 20, 28 and 36 respectively.

Also, Fatima wants to buy stamps only of one denomination.

So, to find the greatest denomination of stamps, we find the HCF of 20, 28 and 36.

 

hcf of 20, 28,36

Now, 20 = 2 x 2 x 5

28 = 2 x 2 x 7

36 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3

The HCF of 20, 28 and 36 is 2×2 = 4

So, ? 4 is the greatest denomination of stamps, she must buy to mail the three parcels.

56. Three brands A, B and C of biscuits are available in packets of 12, 15 and 21 biscuits respectively. If a shopkeeper wants to buy an equal number of biscuits, of each brand, what is the minimum number of packets of each brand, he should buy?

Solution:

Given

Three brands A, B and C of biscuits are available in packets of 12, 15 and 21 biscuits respectively. If a shopkeeper wants to buy an equal number of biscuits, of each brand

A shopkeeper has three brands A, B and C of biscuits are available in packets of 12, 15 and 21 biscuits respectively.
Also, a shopkeeper wants to buy equal number of biscuits of each brand for that we need to find the LCM of 12, 15 and 21.

 

lcm of 12,15,21

The LCM of 12, 15 and 21 = 2x2x3x5x7 = 420

Thus, the required number of packets of

brand A =420/12= 35,

brand B =420/15 =28 and

brand C =420/21 = 20

57. The floor of a room is 8 m 96 cm long and 6 m 72 cm broad. Find the minimum number of square tiles of the same size needed to cover the entire floor.

Solution:

Given

The floor of a room is 8 m 96 cm long and 6 m 72 cm broad.

Length of floor of a room = 8 m 96 cm = 896 cm

Breadth of floor of the room = 6 m 72 cm = 672 cm

To find the minimum number of square tiles of same size needed to cover the entire floor, we find the LCM of 896 cm and 672 cm.

lcm of 672 and 896

LCM of 672 and 896 is 2 X 2 X 2 x 2 X 2 X 2 X 2 X 3 X 7 = 2688

Number of square tiles =( 2688/672×2688/896)

= 4×3 = 12

58. In a school library, there are 780 books of English and 364 books of Science. Ms. Yakang, the librarian of the school wants to store these books in shelves such that each shelf should have the same number of books of each subject. What should be the minimum number of books in each shelf?

Solution:

Given

In a school library, there are 780 books of English and 364 books of Science. Ms. Yakang, the librarian of the school wants to store these books in shelves such that each shelf should have the same number of books of each subject.

Number of books of English = 780

Number of books of Science = 364

 

hcf of 780 and 364

780 = 2x2x3x5x13

364 = 2 x 2 x 7 x 13

The HCF of 780 and 364 = 2 x 2 x 13 = 52

Thus, the minimum number of books in each shelf = 52

59. In a colony of 100 blocks of flats numbering 1 to 1 00, a school van stops at every sixth block while a school bus stops at every tenth block. On which stops will both of them stop if they start from the entrance of the colony?

Solution:

Given

In a colony of 100 blocks of flats numbering 1 to 1 00, a school van stops at every sixth block while a school bus stops at every tenth block.

There are 100 blocks in a colony numbering 1 to 100.

A school van stops at every sixth block and a school bus stops at every tenth block.

We have to find the common stops at which they both stop if they start from a same entrance.

We need to find the LCM of 6 and 10.

lcm of 6 and 10

The LCM of 6 and 10 is 2 * 3 * 5 = 30. i.e.

Firstly both will stop at 30th block, then at 60th block and lastly at 90th block.

60. Test the divisibility of following numbers by 11

(1) 5335
(2) 9020814

Solution: (1) We have the difference between the sum of digits at odd places (from the right) and the sum of digits at even places (from the right) of a number 5335 is (5 + 3) = (3 + 5) = 8- 8 = 0, which is divisible by 11.

5335 is divisible by 11.

(2) We have the difference between the sum of digits at odd places (from the right) and the sum of digits at even places (from
the right) of the number 9020814 is (4 + 8 + 2 + 9) -(1 + 0 + 0) = 23-1 = 22, which is divisible by 11.

9020814 is divisible by 11.

61. Using divisibility tests, determine which of the following numbers are divisible by 4?

(1) 4096
(2) 21084
(3) 31795012

Solution: (1) We have, 4096

Since, the last two digits 96 is divisible by 4.

4096 must be divisible by 4.

(2) We have, 21084

Since, the last two digits 84 is divisible by 4.

21084 must be divisible by 4.

(3) We have, 31795012

Since, the last two digits 12 is divisible by 4.

31795012 must be divisible by 4.

62. Using divisibility test determine which of the following numbers are divisible by 9?

(1) 672
(2) 5652

Solution: (1) We have, 672

Since, the sum of all the digits of 672 is 15, which is not divisible by 9.

672 is not divisible by 9.

(2) We have, 5652

Since, the sum of all the digits of 5652 is 18, which is divisible by 9.

5652 must be divisible by 9.

 

 

NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 2 Whole Numbers

Class 6 Maths Chapter 2 Whole Numbers

Directions: In questions 1 to 11, out of the four options, only one is correct. Write the correct answer.

1. The number of whole numbers between 38 and 68 is

(1) 31
(2) 30
(3) 29
(4) 28

Solution (3): There are 29 whole numbers between 38 and 68.

2. The product of the successor and predecessor of 999 is

(1) 999000
(2) 998000
(3) 989000
(4) 1998

Solution (2): Successor of 999 = 999 +1 = 1000

Predecessor of 999 = 999-1 = 998

Now, their product = 998 x 1000 = 998000

Read and Learn More Class 6 Maths Exemplar Solutions

NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 2 Whole Numbers

3. The product of a non-zero whole number and its successor is always

(1) an even number
(2) an odd number
(3) a prime number
(4) divisible by 3

Solution (1): The product of a non-zero whole number (even/odd) and its successor (odd/ even) is always an even number.

4. A whole number is added to 25 and the same number is subtracted from 25. The sum of the resulting numbers is

(1) 0
(2) 25
(3) 50
(4) 75

Solution(3): Let the whole number be x.

According to question,

Required sum = (x + 25) + (25- x)

= x + 25 + 25- x = 50

5. Which of the following is not true?

(1) (7 + 8) + 9 = 7 + (8 + 9)
(2) (7 x 8) x 9 = 7 x (8 x 9)
(3) 7 + 8 x 9 = (7 + 8) x (7 + 9)
(4) 7 x (8 + 9) = (7 x 8) + (7 x 9)

Solution (3): 7 + 8 x 9 = 7 + 72 = 79,

(7 + 8) x (7 + 9)- 15 × 16 = 240 and 79 x 240

6. By using dot (•) patterns, which ofthe following numbers can be arranged in all the three ways namely a line, a triangle and a rectangle?

(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12

Solution (2): As we know that every number can be arranged as a line.

The number 10 can be shown as

Also, the number 10 can be shown as a triangle as given below :

And, the number 10 can also be shown as a rectangle, as given below :

7. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Both addition and multiplication are associative for whole numbers.
(2) Zero is the identity for multiplication of whole numbers.
(3) Addition and multiplication both are commutative for whole numbers.
(4) Multiplication is distributive over addition for whole numbers.

Solution (2): Zero is the identity for addition of whole numbers.

8. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) 0 + 0 = 0
(3) 0x0 = 0
(2) 0-0 = 0
(4) 0-0 = 0

Solution (4): 0 + 0 is not defined.

9. The predecessor of 1 lakh is

(1) 99000
(2) 99999
(4) 100001
(3) 999999

Solution (2): 1 lakh = 100000

Predecessor of 100000 = 100000-1 = 99999

10. The successor of 1 million is

(1) 2 millions
(2) 1000001
(3) 100001
(4) 10001

Solution(2): 1 million = 1000000

Successor of 1000000 = 1000000 +1 = 1000001

11. Number of even numbers between 58 and 80 is

(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 13

Solution (1): Even numbers between 58 and 80 are 60, 62, 64, 66, 68, 70, 72, 74, 76, 78.

So, here are 10 even numbers between 58 and 80.

Directions: In questions 12 to .37 stole whether the given statements are true (T) or false (F)

12. Successor of a one digit number is always a one digit number.

Solution: False

The successor of a one digit number 9 is a two digit number, i.c., 10.

13. Successor of a 3-digit number is always a 3-digit number.

Solution: False

The successor of a 3-digit number 999 is a 4-digit number, i.e., 1000.

14. Predecessor of a two digit number is always a two digit number.

Solution: False

The predecessor of a two digit number 10 is a one digit number, i.e., 9.

15. Every whole number has its successor.

Solution: True

16. Every whole number has its predecessor.

Solution: False

0 is a whole number and it does not have any predecessor.

17. Between any two natural numbers, there is one natural number.

Solution: False

Since, 1 and 2 are two natural numbers and there is no natural number between1 and 2.

18. The smallest 4-digit number is the successor of the largest 3-digit number.

Solution: True

The smallest 4-digit number is 1000, i.e., 999 +1 and the largest 3-digit number is 999.

19. Of the given two natural numbers, the one having more digits is greater.

Solution: True

20. Natural numbers are closed under addition.

Solution: True

The sum of two natural numbers is also a natural number.

21. Natural numbers are not closed under multiplication.

Solution: False

The multiplication of two natural numbers is also a natural number.

22. Natural numbers are closed under subtraction.

Solution: False

2 and 5 are natural numbers, but their subtraction, 2-5 =-3 isnot anatural number.

23. Addition is commutative for natural numbers.

Solution: True

Since, a + b = b + a, where ‘a’ and ‘V are natural numbers.

24. 1 is the identity for addition of whole numbers.

Solution: False

0 is the identity for addition of whole numbers.

As 0 + a = a + 0 = a, where a is any whole number.

25. 1 is the identity for multiplication of whole numbers.

Solution: True

a×1 = 1 x a = a, where ‘a’ is any whole number.

26. There is a whole number which when added to a whole number, gives the number itself.

Solution: True

27. There is a natural number which when added to a natural number, gives the number itself.

Solution: False

28. If a whole number is divided by another whole number, which is greater than the first one, the quotient is not equal to zero.

Solution: True

29. Any non-zero whole number divided by itself gives the quotient 1.

Solution: True

30. The product of two whole numbers need not be a whole number.

Solution: False

The product of any two whole numbers will always be a whole number.

31. A whole number divided by another whole number greater than 1 never gives the quotient equal to the former.

Solution : True

32. Every multiple of a number is greater than or equal to the number.

Solution: True

33. The number of multiples of a given number is finite.

Solution: False

Since, the number of multiples of a given number is infinite.

34. Every number is a multiple of itself.

Solution: True

35. Every whole number is the successor of another whole number.

Solution: False

0 is a whole number but it is not a successor of any whole number.

36. Sum of two whole numbers is always less than their product.

Solution: False

Product of two whole numbers may or may not be greater than their sum.

37. If the sum of two distinct whole numbers is odd, then their difference also must be odd.

Solution: True

Directions:In questions 38 to 59,fill in the blanks to make the statements true.

38. The smallest whole number is_________.

Solution 0 : 0 is the smallest whole number.

39. Successor of 1061 59 is_________.

Solution 106160: Successor of 106159 is 106159 +1, i.e., 106160

40. Predecessor of 1 00000 is_________.

Solution 99999: Predecessor of 100000 is 100000-l, i.e., 99999

41. 400 is the predecessor of__________.

Solution 401: 400 is the predecessor of 400 + 1, i.e., 401

42.________ is the successor of the largest 3 digit number.

Solution 1000: Largest 3 digit number = 999

Successor of 999 is 999 + 1, i.e., 1000

43. If 0 is subtracted from a whole number, then the result is the_________ itself.

Solution: Number

44. Whole numbers are closed under and under________.

Solution: Addition, multiplication

45. Natural numbers are closed under and under_______.

Solution: Addition, multiplication

46. Division of a whole number by ___________ is not defined.

Solution: 0

47. Multiplication is distributive over__________ for whole numbers.

Solution: Addition

48. 2395 x_________ = 6195×2395

Solution 6195: Since, multiplication is commutative for whole numbers

49. 1001 x 2002 = 1001 x (1001 +_________)

Solution: 1001

1001 x 2002 = 1001 x (1001 +1001)

50. 10001 x 0 = __________

Solution: 0.

10001 x 0 = 0

51. 2916 x_________ = 0

Solution: 0.

2916 x 0 = 0

52. 9128 x_______= 9128

Solution 1 : Since,1 is the multiplicative identity for whole numbers.

53. 125 + (68 + 17) = (125 +_______)+ 17

Solution 68: Since, addition is associative for whole numbers.

54. 8925x 1 =_____

Solution: 8925

8925x 1= 8925

55. 19 x 12 + 19 = 19 x (12 +_______)

Solution 1: Since multiplication is distributive over addition for whole numbers.

56. 24 x 35 = 24 x 1 8 + 24 X_______

Solution: 17

24 x 35 = 24 x 1 8 + 24 X 17

57. 32x(27×19) = (32x__________)x19

Solution 27: Since, multiplication is associative for whole numbers.

58. 786×3 + 786×7 =_______

Solution: 7860 : 786 x 3 + 786 x 7 = 786 * (3 + 7)

= 786 x 10 = 7860

786×3 + 786×7 =7860

59. 24 x 25 = 24 X □÷4= 600

Solution: 100

60. Given below are two columns – Column I and Column II. Match each item of Column I with the corresponding item of Column II.

Match the following

 

 

NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 1 Knowing Our Numbers

Class 6 Maths Chapter 1 Knowing Our Numbers

Directions: In questions 1 to 13, out of the four options, only one is correct. Write the correct answer.

1. The product of the place values of two 2’s in 428721 is

(1) 4
(2) 40000
(3) 400000
(4) 40000000

Solution : (3) Place values of 2’s in 428721 are 20000 and 20

The required product = 20000 x 20 = 400000

NCERT Exemplar Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 1 Knowing Our Numbers

2. 3x 1 0000 + 7x 1 000 + 9×1 00 + 0x10 + 4 is the same as

(1) 3794
(2) 37940
(3) 37904
(4) 379409

Read and Learn More Class 6 Maths Exemplar Solutions

Solution (3) : 3 x 10000 + 7 x 1000 + 9 x 100 + 0 x 10 + 4

= 30000 + 7000 + 900 + 4 = 37904

3. If 1 is added to the greatest 7-digit number, it will be equal to

(1) 10 thousand
(2) 1 lakh
(3) 10 lakh
(4)1,00,00,000

Solution (4): The greatest 7-digit number = 99,99,999

Now, 99,99,999 +1 = 1,00,00,000

4. The expanded form of the number 9578 is

(1) 9×10000 + 5×1000 + 7×10 + 8×1
(2) 9x 1000 + 5x 100 + 7x 10 + 8×1
(3) 9x 1000 + 57x 10 + 8×1
(4) 9x 100 + 5x 100 + 7x 10 + 8×1

Solution (2) : Expanded form of 9578 = 9 x 1000 + 5 x 100 + 7 x 10 + 8×1

5. When rounded off to the nearest thousands, the number 85642 is

(1) 85600
(2) 85700
(3) 85000
(4) 86000

Solution (4): Round off 85642 to the nearest thousands = 86000

6. The largest 4-digit number, using any one digit twice, from digits 5, 9, 2 and 6 is

(1) 9652
(2) 9562
(3) 9659
(4) 9965

Solution: (4): The largest 4-digitnumber formed by 5, 9, 2 and 6 using digit ‘9’ twice = 9965

7. In Indian System of Numeration, the number 58695376 is written as

(1) 58,69,53,76
(2) 58,695,376
(3) 5,86,95,376
(4) 586,95,376

Solution: (3): In Indian System of Numeration, 58695376 can be written as 5,86,95,376

8. One million is equal to

(1) 1 lakh
(3) 1 crore
(2) 10 lakh
(4) 10 crore

Solution: (2): One million = 1,000,000

Also, 10,00,000 = 10 lakh

9. The greatest number which on rounding off to nearest thousands gives 5000, is

(1) 5001
(2) 5559
(3) 5999
(4) 5499

Solution: (4) : (1) Rounding off 5001 to nearest thousands = 5000

(2) Rounding off 5559 to nearest thousands = 6000

(3) Rounding off 5999 to nearest thousands = 6000

(4) Rounding off 5499 to nearest thousands = 5000

And 5499 > 5001

10. Keeping the place of 6 in the number 6350947 same, the smallest number obtained by rearranging other digits is

(1) 6975430
(2) 6043579
(3) 6034579
(4) 6034759

Solution (3): The new number formed = 6034579

11. Which of the following numbers in Roman numerals is incorrect?

(1) LXXX
(2) LXX
(3) LX
(4) LLX

Solution: (4) : LLX is incorrect because L can be used exactly once in Roman numerals.

12. The largest 5-digit number having three different digits is

(1) 98978
(2) 99897
(3) 99987
(4) 98799

Solution: (3) : The largest 5-digit number with three different digits is 99987

13. The smallest 4-digit number having three different digits is

(1) 1102
(2) 1012
(3) 1020
(4) 1002

Solution: (4) : The smallest 4-digit number with three different digits is 1002.

Directions: In questions 14 to 29 state whether the given statements are true (T) or false (F)

14. In Roman numeration, a symbol is not repeated more than three times.

Solution: True

15. In Roman numeration, if a symbol is repeated, its value is multiplied as many times as it occurs.

Solution: False

If a symbol is repeated, then its value is added as many times as it occurs in Roman numeration

16. 5555 = 5×1000 + 5×100 + 5×10 + 5×1

Solution: True

17. 39746 = 3 × 10000 + 9 × 1000 + 7 × 100 + 4×10 + 6

Solution: True

18. 82546 = 8 x 1000 + 2 × 1000 + 5 × 100 + 4 × 10 + 6

Solution: False

Since, 82546 = 8 × 10000 + 2× 1000 + 5×100 + 4×10 + 6

19. 532235 = 5 X 100000 + 3 x 10000 + 2 x 1000 + 2X 100 + 3X 10 + 5

Solution: True

20. XXIX = 31

Solution: False

Since, XXIX = 29

21. LXXIV = 74

Solution: True

22. The number LIV is greater than LVI.

Solution: False

Since, LIV = 54 and LVI = 56

LVI is greater than LTV

23. The numbers 4578, 4587, 5478, 5487 are in descending order.

Solution: False

Since, the numbers 4578, 4587, 5478, 5487 are in ascending order.

24. The number 85764 rounded off to nearest hundreds is written as 85700.

Solution: False

The number 85764 rounded off to nearest hundreds is 85800.

25. Estimated sum of 7826 and 1 2469 rounded off to hundreds is 20,000.

Solution: False

Round off 7826 to hundreds is 7800.

Round off 12469 to hundreds is 12500.

Required sum = 7800 + 12500 = 20300

26. The largest six digit telephone number that can be formed by using digits 5, 3, 4, 7, 0, 8 only once is 875403.

Solution: False

The largest six digit telephone number that can be formed by using digits 5, 3, 4, 7, 0, 8 only once is 875430.

27. The number 81652318 will be read as eighty one crore six lakh fifty two thousand three hundred eighteen.

Solution: False

The number 81652318 will be read as eight crore sixteen lakh fifty two thousand three hundred eighteen.

28. The largest 4-diglt number formed by the digits 6, 7, 0, 9 using each digit only once is 9760.

Solution: True

29. Among kilo, milli and centi, the smallest is centi.

Solution: False

Among kilo, milli and centi, the smallest is milli.

Directions: In questions 30 to 44, fill in the blanks to make the statements true

30. (1) 10 million =__________ crore

Solution:1

(2) 10 lakh =_______ million.

Solution: 1

31. (1) 1 metre = ____________ millimetres

Solution: 1000

(2) 1 centimetre =___________ millimetres

Solution: 10

(3) 1 kilometre =__________millimetres

Solution: 10,00,000

33. 100 thousands =________ lakh.

Solution: 1

34. Height of a person is 1 m 65 cm. His height in millimetres is_________.

Solution: 1650 : 1 m 65 cm = (1000 + 650) mm = 1650mm

35. Length of river ‘Narmada’ is about 1290 km. Its length in metres is___________.

Solution: 1290000 : 1290 km = (1290 x 1000) m = 1290000m

36. The distance between Srinagar and Leh is 422 km. The same distance in metres is___________

Solution: 422000: 422 km= (422 x 1000) m = 422000 m

37. Writing of numbers from the greatest to the smallest is called an arrangement in__________ order.

Solution: Descending

38. By reversing the order of digits of the greatest number made by five different non zero digits, the new number Is the________ number of five digits.

Solution: Smallest*

By reversing the order of digits of the greatest number made by five different non zero digits, the new number is the smallest number of these digits.

39. By adding 1 to greatest_______ digt number, we get ten lakh.

Solution: 6: Greatest 6-digit number = 999999 By adding1 to 999999, we get 1000000.

40. The number five crore twenty three lakh seventy eight thousand four hundred one can be written, using commas, in the Indian
System of Numeration as_______.

Solution: 5,23,78,401

41. In Roman Numeration, the symbol X can be subtracted from ________, M and C only.

Solution: L

42. The number 66 in Roman numerals is__________.

Solution: LXVI: 66 =LXVI

43. The population of Pune was 2,538,473 in 2001. Rounded off to nearest thousands, the population was____________.

Solution: 2,538,000

44. The smallest 6 digit natural number ending in 5 is__________

Solution: 100005

45. Arrange the following numbersin descending order: 8435, 4835, 13584, 5348, 25843

Solution: Descending order of given numbers is, 25843, 13584, 8435, 5348, 4835

46. Of the following numbers which is the greatest? Which is the smallest? 38051425, 30040700, 67205602

Solution: The greatest number is 67205602 and the smallest number is 30040700.

47. Write In expanded form :

(1) 74836
(2) 574021
(3) 8907010

Solution:(1) 74836- 7 x10000) x 4 x 1000 + 8 x 100 +3x 10+6×1

(2) 574021 =5x 1 00000 + 7x 1 0000 + 4x 1000 + 0x 100 + 2x 10+ 1 x1

(3) 8907010 = 8 x 1000000 + 9x 1 00000 + 0 x 10000 + 7 x 1000 + 0 x 100 + 1 x 10 + 0 x 1

48. As per the census of 2001, the population of four states are given below. Arrange the states in ascending and descending order of their population.

(1) Maharashtra 96878627
(2) Andhra Pradesh 76210007
(3) Bihar 82998509
(4) Uttar Pradesh 166197921

Solution: Ascending order -» (2), (3), (1), (4)

Descending order —» (4), (1), (3), (2)

49. The diameter of Jupiter is 142800000 metres. Insert commas suitably and write the diameter according to International System of Numeration.

Solution:

Given

The diameter of Jupiter is 142800000 metres.

The diameter of Jupiter is 142,800,000 metres.

50. India’s population has been steadily increasing from 439 millions in 1961 to 1028 millions in 2001. Find the total increase in population from 1961 to 2001. Write the increase in population in Indian System of Numeration, using commas suitably.

Solution:

Given

India’s population has been steadily increasing from 439 millions in 1961 to 1028 millions in 2001. Find the total increase in population from 1961 to 2001.

Total increaseinpopulation from 1961 to 2001= 1028 millions- 439 millions = 589 millions

According toIndian System of Numeration, the increase in population = 58,90,00,000

51. Radius of the Earth is 6400 km and that of Mars is 4300000 m. Whose radius is bigger and by how much?

Solution:

Given

Radius of the Earth is 6400 km and that of Mars is 4300000 m.

Radius of the Earth = 6400 km = 6400 x 1000 m = 6400000 m

And radius of the Mars = 4300000 m

Radius of the Earth is greater than the radius of the Mars by (6400(X)0- 4300000) m = 2100000 m.

52. In 2001, the populations of Tripura and Meghalaya were 3,199,203 and 2,318,822, respectively. Write the populations of these two states in words.

Solution:

Given

In 2001, the populations of Tripura and Meghalaya were 3,199,203 and 2,318,822, respectively.

The population of Tripura = 3,199,203 i.e., Three million one hundred ninety-nine thousand two hundred three.

And the population of Meghalaya = 2,318,822, i.e., Two million three hundred eighteen thousand eight hundred twenty two.

53. In a city, polio drops were given to 2,12,583 children on Sunday in March 2008 and to 2,16,813 children in the next month. Find the difference of the number of children getting polio drops in the two months.

Solution:

Given

In a city, polio drops were given to 2,12,583 children on Sunday in March 2008 and to 2,16,813 children in the next month.

Number of children getting polio drops in March 2008 = 2,12,583

Number of children getting polio drops in April 2008 = 2,16,813

The required difference of the number of children getting polio drops in the two months = 2,16,813- 2,12,583 = 4,230

54. A person had ? 1000000 with him. He purchased a colour T.V. for ? 16580, a motor cycle for ? 45890 and a flat for ? 870000. How much money was left with him?

Solution:

Given :

A person had 1000000 with him. He purchased a colour T.V. for 16580, a motor cycle for  45890 and a flat for  870000.

Total amount a personhad = 1000000

The amounthe spent on a colour T.V. = 16580

The amount he spent on a motorcycle = 45890

The amount he spent on a flat =870000

Total amount he spent = (16580 + 45890 + 870000) = 932470

Thus, the amount left with him = 1000000- 932470 = 67530

55. Out of 1 80000 tablets of Vitamin A, 1 8734 are distributed among the students in a district. Find the number of the remaining vitamin tablets.

Solution:

Given:

Out of 1 80000 tablets of Vitamin A, 1 8734 are distributed among the students in a district.

Total tablets of Vitamin A= 180000

Number of tablets distributed among the students in a district = 18734

The number of remaining vitamin tablets -180000-18734-161266

56. Chinmay had ? 610000. He gave 87500 to Jyoti, 126380 to Javed and 350000 to John. How much money was left with him?

Solution:

Chinmay had total amount = 610000

The amount he gave to Jyoti = 87500

The amount he gave to Javed = 126380

The amount he gave to John = 350000

Total amount given by Chinmay = (87500 + 126380+ 350000) = 563880

Thus, the amount left with him = 610000- 563880 = 46120

57. Find the difference between the largest number of seven digits and the smallest number of eight digits.

Solution: The smallest number of eight digits = 10000000

The largest number of seven digits = 9999999

The required difference = 10000000-9999999 =1

58. A mobile number consists of ten digits. The first four digits of the number are 9, 9, 8 and 7. The last three digits are 3, 5 and 5. The remaining digits are distinct and make the mobile number, the greatest possible number. What are these digits?

Solution:

Given

A mobile number consists of ten digits. The first four digits of the number are 9, 9, 8 and 7. The last three digits are 3, 5 and 5. The remaining digits are distinct and make the mobile number, the greatest possible number.

A mobile number consists of 10 digits.

If the first four digits of the number are 9, 9, 8 and 7 and the last three digits of the number are 3, 5 and 5.

Thus, for the greatest possible number, the remaining distinct digits are 6, 4 and 2.

59. A mobile number consists of ten digits. First four digits are 9, 9, 7 and 9. Make the smallest mobile number by using only one digit twice from 8, 3, 5, 6, 0.

Solution:

Given

A mobile number consists of ten digits. First four digits are 9, 9, 7 and 9.

A mobile number consists of 10 digits.

If the first four digits are 9, 9, 7 and 9.

Thus, the smallest mobile number by using only one digit twice from 8, 3, 5, 6, 0 is 9979003568.

60. In a five digit number, digit at ten’s place is 4, digit at unit’s place is one fourth of ten’s place digit, digit at hundred’s place Is 0, digit at thousand’s place is 5 times of the digit at unit’s place and ten thousand’s place digit is double the digit at ten’s place. Write the number.

Solution:

Given

In a five digit number, digit at ten’s place is 4, digit at unit’s place is one fourth of ten’s place digit, digit at hundred’s place Is 0, digit at thousand’s place is 5 times of the digit at unit’s place and ten thousand’s place digit is double the digit at ten’s place.

A number consists of 5 digits.

Now, the digit at ten’s place = 4,

the digit at unit’s place = 1/4×4=1,

tine digit at hundred’s place = 0,

the digit at thousand’s place = 5 x1 = 5

the digit at ten thousand’s place = 2×4 =8

Therefore, the number is 85041.

61. Find the sum of the greatest and the least six digit numbers formed by the digits 2, 0, 4, 7,6, 5 using each digit only once.

Solution: By using the digits 2, 0, 4, 7, 6, 5

The greatest number formed = 765420,

and the least number formed = 204567

The required sum= 765420 + 204567= 969987

62. A factory has a container filled with 35874 litres of cold drink. In how many bottles of 200 ml capacity each can it be filled?

Solution:

Given:

A factory has a container filled with 35874 litres of cold drink.

Quantity of cold drink in a container = 35874 litres = 35874 x 1000 ml = 35874000 ml

The capacity of one bottle = 200 ml

The required number of bottles = 35874000 + 200 = 179370

Therefore, 179370 bottles can be filledby cold drink.

63. The population of a town is 450772. In a survey, it was reported that one out of every 14 persons is illiterate. In all how many illiterate persons are there in the town?

Solution:

Given:

The population of a town is 450772. In a survey, it was reported that one out of every 14 persons is illiterate.

Total population of a town = 450772

Since, one out of every 14 personsis illiterate.

The number of illiterate persons in the town = 450772 + 14 = 32198

The number of illiterate persons in the town

Therefore, 32198 persons are illiterate in the town.

64. Make the greatest and the smallest 5-digit numbers using different digits in which 5 appears at ten’s place.

Solution: By using the digit 5 at ten’s place, the greatest 5-digit number is 98756, and the smallest 5-digitnumber is 10253

65. How many grams should be added to 2 kg 300 g to make it 5 kg 68 g?

Solution: 5 kg 68 g = (5 x 1000 + 68) g = 5068 g and 2 kg 300 g = (2 x 1000 + 300) g = 2300 g

The required number of grams should be added = 5068 g- 2300 g = 2768 g or 2kg 768 g

2768 grams should be added to 2 kg 300 g to make it 5 kg 68 g

66. A box contains 50 packets of biscuits each weighing 1 20 g. How many such boxes can be loaded in a van which cannot carry beyond 900 kg?

Solution:

Given

A box contains 50 packets of biscuits each weighing 1 20 g.

The total weight of a box containing 50 packets ofbiscuits each weighing 120 g = 50 x 120 g = 6000 g

The capacity of a van = 900 kg = 900 x 1000 g = 900000 g

The required number of boxes = 900000/6000 = 150

Therefore, 150 boxes can be loaded in the van.

67. How many lakhs make five billions?

Solution: 50000 lakhs make 5 billions.

68. How many millions make 3 crores?

Solution: 30 millions make 3 crores.

69.Estimate each of the following by rounding off each number to nearest hundreds:

(1) 874 + 478
(2) 793 + 397
(3) 11244 + 3507
(4) 17677 + 13589

Solution:(1) 874 rounded off to The nearest hundreds-900

478 rounded off to the nearest hundreds -500

Estimated sum = 900 + 500 – 1400

(2) 793 rounded off to the nearest hundreds = 800

397 rounded off to the nearest hundreds = 400

Estimated sum = 800 + 400 = 1200

(3) 11244 rounded off to the nearest hundreds= 11200

3507 rounded off to the nearest hundreds = 3500

Estimated sum = 11200 + 3500 = 14700

(4) 17677roundedofftothenearesthundreds = 17700

13589 rounded off to the nearest hundreds = 13600

Estimated sum = 17700 + 13600 = 31300

70. Estimate each of the following by rounding off each number to nearest tens:

(1) 11963-9369
(2) 76877-7783
(3) 10732-4354
(4) 78203-16407

Solution: (1) 11963 rounded off to the nearest tens- 11960

9369 rounded off to the nearest tens = 9370

Estimated difference=11960- 9370= 2590

(2) 76877 rounded off to the nearest tens = 76880

7783 rounded off to the nearest tens = 7780

Estimated difference= 76880- 7780= 69100

(3) 10732 rounded off to the nearest tens = 10730

4354 rounded off to the nearest tens = 4350

Estimated difference = 10730- 4350 = 6380

(4) 78203 rounded off to the nearest tens = 78200

16407 rounded off to the nearest tens = 16410

Estimated difference = 78200 – 16410 = 61790

71. Estimate each of the following products by rounding off each number to nearest tens:

(1) 87×32
(2) 311 × 113
(3) 3239 × 28
(4) 1385×789

Solution: (1) 87 rounded off to the nearest tens = 90

32 rounded off to the nearest tens = 30

Estimated product = 90 * 30 = 2700

(2) 311 rounded off to the nearest tens = 310

113 rounded off to the nearest tens = 110

Estimated product = 310 * 110 = 34100

(3) 3239 rounded off to the nearest tens= 3240

28 rounded off to the nearest tens = 30

Estimated product = 3240 * 30 = 97200

(4) 1385 rounded off to the nearest tens=1390

789 rounded off to the nearest tens = 790

Estimated product= 1390 * 790= 1098100

72. The population of a town was 78787 in the year 1991 and 95833 in the year 2001. Estimate the increase in population by
rounding off each population to nearest hundreds.

Solution:

Given

The population of a town was 78787 in the year 1991 and 95833 in the year 2001.

78787 rounded off to the nearest hundreds = 78800

95833 rounded off to the nearest hundreds = 95800

The estimated increase in population = 95800-78800 = 17000

73. Estimate the product 758 x 6784 using the general rule.

Solution: 758 can be rounded off to 800 and 6784 can be rounded off to 7000 Estimated product= 800 × 7000 = 5600000

The product 758 x 6784 using the general rule = 5600000

74. A garment factory produced 216315 shirts, 182736 trousers and 58704 jackets in a year. What is the total production of all the three items in that year?

Solution:

Given

A garment factory produced 216315 shirts, 182736 trousers and 58704 jackets in a year.

Number of shirts produced by the factory = 216315

Number of trousers produced by the factory = 182736

Number of jackets produced by the factory = 58704

Total production of the factory = 216315 + 182736 + 58704 = 457755

Total production of the factory = 457755

75. A vessel has 13 litres 200 mL of fruit juice. In how many glasses each of capacity 60 mL can it be filled?

Solution:

Given:

A vessel has 13 litres 200 mL of fruit juice.

Quantity of fruit juice in a vessel = 13 L 200 mL

= (13 x 1000 + 200) mL = 13200 mL

Capacity of one glass = 60 mL

The required number of glasses = 13200 ÷ 60 = 220

Therefore, 220 glasses can be filled by fruit juice.

76. A loading tempo can carry 482 boxes of biscuits weighing 15 kg each, whereas a van can carry 518 boxes each of the same weight. Find the total weight that can be carried by both the vehicles.

Solution:

Given

A loading tempo can carry 482 boxes of biscuits weighing 15 kg each, whereas a van can carry 518 boxes each of the same weight.

Total weight can be carried by a tempo= (482×15) kg = 7230kg

and the total weight can be carried by a van = (518×15) kg = 7770 kg

Thus, the total weight that can be carried by both the vehicles = (7230 + 7770) kg = 15000 kg

The total weight that can be carried by both the vehicles = 15000 kg

77. In the marriage of her daughter, Lecla spent 216766 on food and decoration,122322 on jewellery, 88234 on furniture and 26780 on kitchen items. Find the total amount spent by her on the above items.

Solution:

Given :

In the marriage of her daughter, Lecla spent 216766 on food and decoration,122322 on jewellery, 88234 on furniture and 26780 on kitchen items.

Amount spent by Leela on food and decoration = 216766

Amount spent by her on jewellery = 122322

Amount spent by her on furniture = 88234

Amount spent by her on kitchen items = 26780

Total amount spent by her = (216766 + 122322 + 88234 + 26780) = 454102

Total amount spent by her = 454102

78. A box contains 5 strips each having 12 capsules of 500 mg medicine in each capsule. Find the total weight in grams of medicine in 32 such boxes.

Solution:

Given :

A box contains 5 strips each having 12 capsules of 500 mg medicine in each capsule.

Quantity of medicine in one capsule = 500 mg

Quantity ofmedicinein 12 capsules or 1 strip = (500 x 12) mg = 6000 mg- 6 g

Quantity of medicine in 5 strips or 1 box = (6 x 5) g = 30 g

Quantity of medicinein 32 boxes = (30 x 32)g = 960g

The total weight in grams of medicine in 32 such boxes = 960g

 

Class 10 Science Notes For Heredity And Common Genetic Diseases

Heredity (How are the characteristics of an organism transmitted from one generation to another ?)

Heredity and Variation :

The resemblance of offspring to their parents is termed heredity. Members of a family share many similarities .in appearance, such as height, eye colour, hair colour. There are
differences in the manner how characteristics are inherited to- offsprings.

Different types of eye colour Different types of natural hair colour

Offsprings do not look exactly like their parents. So, the offspring resemble their parents in major respect but also differ from the parents in. many minor respects.

An Austrian monk, Gregor Johan Mendel performed’ a series of simple experiments and discovered how heredity worked.

Definition: Heredity is the transmission of characteristics or traits through genes from one generation to another by reproduction.

Read and Learn More Class 10 Science

The term ‘genetics’ was coined by Bateson (1905). It is derived from the Greek word ‘gen’, means “to grow into”, whereas the term ‘gene’ was first proposed by Johannsen (1909).

The science of heredity and the principles governing the inheritance of characters from parent to the progeny (i.e. next generation offsprings) is called genetics.

Mutation—Sometimes there may be some change in chromosome structure or chromosome number or alteration in composition of DNA of a gene. This change in genetic constitution of an organism is called mutation.

Heridity parents and child

Mutation is the cause of variation among organisms. Mutation gives rise to origin of new characteristics or adaptive changes that may result into evolution in the long run. That s why it is sai,”Mutation is the raw material of evolution”.

Any mutation or variation may have some good effects or bad effects.

Variation—The permanent change in chromosome or DNA may result in expression of characters, called as variation. So. variation signifies any difference between cells or individual organisms or groups of organisms of any species.

This is caused either by genetic difference (genotypic variation) or by the effect of environmental factors on the external manifestation of the organisms (phenotypic variation).

Variation shows deviation in characters in an individual from the group to which it belongs or deviation in characters of offspring from those of its parents. Genotypic variation may result Into phenotypic variation.

So, mutation is the cause variation whereas variation is the effect of mutation.

Examples of variation in man :

Free and attached ear lobe —In man, if ear lobes hang free, it is called free or detached ear lobe. On the contrary, if the ear lobes are connected directly to the sides of head, they are attached.

Ear lobe in man (Genetically Inherited)

This variation in different persons Is controlled by genes. Free ear lobe is dominant trait and that of attached ear lobe is recessive trait.

Roller and normal tongue—Some people can curl up (fold) the sides of their tongue to form a tube shape called tongue rolling, while others can not. It has been proposed tongue rolling Is due to genetic variation (but sometimes it might be a learning process also (environmental factor)].

Tongue rolling (Genetically inherited character)

Roller tongue Is dominant variation whereas normal unfolded tongue is recessive variation.

Key terms associated with heredity:

Characteristics: Definition—All special features of an organism that are transmitted through genes from one generation to next are called characteristics, e.g. Eye colour, height
of a person, gender (sex), blood groups, skin colour etc.

Traits: Definition—The phenotypic expression of a particular characteristic is called trait e.g. Eye colour is the characteristic whereas a trait would be blue eyes or brown eyes etc.

Allele or Allelomorph: Definition—The contrasting pair of genes located in the same locus of the homologous chromosome and control same characteristic are called allele
or allelomorph, e.g.

In a hybrid tall plant, T (Tall plant) and t (dwarf plant) genes are alleles. Similarly gene for brown eye colour (B) and blue eye colour (b) are also alleles.

Locus: Definition—The point or place on a chromosome where a particular gene is present is known, as locus of that gene. e.g. a chromosome may contain many loci linearly
present on a chromosome.

Each gene is present at a definite locus on the chromosome.

Unit of inheritance (Factor/Gene): Definition—Gene is a part of DMA, located on a particular point (locus) of a chromosome, functions as hereditary unit (responsible for inheritance of characteristics from parents to offsprings), also controls biological functions.

G. j. Mendel, father of genetics, called these genes as ‘’factors’ which control all the characteristics of an organism, e.g. Gene for tallness and gene for dwarfness in pea plant; gene for black hair colour and white hair colour in guineapig etc.

Monohybrid cross: Definition—The genetic experiment of cross breeding where only one pair of contrasting character (i.e. two alternate traits of a particular character) is considered
is known as monohybrid cross, e.g.

In Mendel’s experiment, the cross between pure tall and pure dwarf pea plant; in guineapig, the cross between pure black hair and pure white hair etc.

Dihybrid cross: Definition—The genetic experiment of cross breeding where two pairs of contrasting characters (i.e. two alternate forms of two different characters) considered is known as dihybrid cross, e.g.

In Mendel’s dihybrid cross with pea plant, he considered shape of seed (Round or Wrinkled) as well as colour of seed (Yellow or Green); in Guineapig, hair colour (Black or White) as well as texture of hair (Rough and Smooth).

Homozygous organisms: Definition—Whan the pair of genes present in the corresponding locus of the homologous chromosome are exactly same, the organism is called as
homozygous organism, e.g. homozygous tall pea plant (IT), homozygous dwarf pea plant (tt) etc.

Heterozygous organism: Definition-When the pair of genes (alleles) present in the corresponding locus of the homologous chromosome are of contrasting type, the organism
is called as heterozygous organism e.g. heterozygous tali pea plant (Tt); heterozygous black guineapig (Bb) etc.

Hybridization: Definition—it is the process of interbreeding between two genetically different (divergent) individuals. They may be of same species (intraspecific hybridization) or
different species (interspecific hybridization), e.g.

In Mendel’s monohybrid cross, there cross breeding or cross pollination between pure tali plant and pure dwarf plant.”

Pure and hybrid: Definition—Homozygous organisms are known as pure organisms and hetero-zygous organisms are called hybrid organisms, e.g, homozygous tall pea plant isTT, which Is also known as pure tall, whereas heterozygous pea plant is Tt, which is known as hybrid tall.

Parental generation: Deflnition-The first -set of parents used in the cross of a genetic experiment is called parental generation. So the generation from where a genetic experiment starts is known as parental generation and is represented by P. e.g.

In Mendel s monohybrid cross, parental generation (P) Consists of the pure tall and pure dwarf plants that were cross-pollinated.

Filial generation (F1, F2): Definition—In a genetic experiment, all the offsprings produced from the parental generation (P) are together known as filial generation. It is
represented by F.

The first generation offspring of the parental generation is known- as First filial generation (F1) and the offspring of F1 is known as second filial generation (F2) and so on. e.g.

In Mendel’s monohybrid cross in F1 generation, all plants were hybrid tall. In F2 generation, there were 3/4 tall plants and 1/4 dwarf plants.

Dominant characteristics: Definition—Out of two contrasting alleles in a hybrid organism, one is expressed and other is suppressed—the expressed phenotype is known as
dominant characteristic, the expressed gene is called dominant gene and the phenomenon is known as dominance, e.g.

In Mendel’s experiment, gene (factor) for tallness of plant (T) is dominant over the gene for dwarfness of plant (t); in Guineapig, black hair colour (B) is dominant over white hair colour (b).

Recessive characteristics: Definition—In a hybrid organism, out of two contrasting alleles, one is expressed and other is suppressed—the suppressed phenotype is known as recessive
characteristic, the suppressed gene is -called as recessive gene and the phenomenon is known as recessiveness. e.g.

In Mendel’s monohybrid cross, gene (factor) for dwarfness (t) is recessive to gene for tallness (T); in Guineapig, white hair coiour (b) is recessive to black hair colour (B).

Phenotype and Genotype: Definition—The externally visible (or measurable) characteristics of an organism are called as phenotype, e.g. Tall plant, dwarf plant, red flower, .white flower, black eye, blue eye etc.

Definition—The genetic constitution of an organism is called genotype. It is represented by some symbols to explain the composition of genes of a particular character, e.g. gene for
tallness is represented by (T), that of dwarfness by (t); the genotype of a pure tall plant is TT, that of hybrid tall plant is (Tt) etc.

In Mendel’s monohybrid cross, phenotype and genotype can be explained as follows :

In Mendel's monohybrid cross, phenotype and genotype can be explained as follows

In the above example, phenotype of the P generation plants were pure tall and pure dwarf and their corresponding genotype were (TT) and (tt) respectively. In the first filial generation
(F1) all the offspring plants were hybrid tall.

Here ‘hybrid tall’ is the phenotype and the genotype is (Tt). Usually dominant gene is represented by capital letter and recessive gene by small letter to explain genotype.

Differences between Homozygous (pure) and Heterozygous (hybrid) :

Differences between Homozygous (pure) and Heterozygous (hybrid)

Differences between Dominant and Recessive characters :

Differences between Dominant and Recessive characters

Differences between Phenotype and Genotype :

Differences between Phenotype and Genotype

Mendel’s work on Pea plant :

Gregor Johann Mendel (1822—1884) is known as “Father of genetics” because he was the first person to demonstrate the mechanism of inheritance of characters from parents to offsprings.

Mendel studied Botany and Physics in the University of Vienna. He was a priest in St. Thomas Church in Austria.

In 1856, Mendel observed the varieties of characteristics of pea plants in his monastery. He performed varieties of experiments (1856-1866) of self pollination and cross pollination with the pea plants.

Mendel’s research work was not recognised by the contemporary scientists for various reasons. Mendel died in 1884 without any recognition.

Gregor Johann Mendel

Self and Cross-pollination with pea plants: Mendel selected Garden pea (edible pea) plant (Pisum sativum; 2n = 14) for his experiments. Mendel performed his experiment at a time when there was no concept of chromosome, DNA, gene, meiosis and so on.

For Self-pollination, Mendel covered the bisexual flowers of pea plant by paper bags so that no foreign pollen grain could contaminate the flowers during experiment.

For cross-pollination, Mendel followed three steps :

  1. Emasculation—From the selected bisexual flowers, the stamens were cut off by a scissor as if the masculine part of the flower was removed.
  2. Dusting—With the help of brush, the pollen grains of one flower were transferred to the stigma of another flower and vice versa.
  3. Bagging – After cross pollination oil the flowers were covered with paper bags to avoid any Contamination of undesired pollen grains.

Finally all fir fertilization, the ovary of the flower was modified into fruit (pea pod) and ovules wore modified Into seeds. When the seeds were matured, they were collected and put Into the soil, then the seeds germinated into new saplings (F1 generation).

Reasons behind mendel’s success:

Mendel performed his experiments when biologists were unaware of the chromosome, DNA, genes etc and also the process of cell division (mitosis or meiosis). Even the process of
union between gametes during sexual reproduction was not very clear.

Simply on the basis of his breeding (hybridization) experiments, Mendel came to several conclusions (known as Mendel’s law) which constituted the foundation of modern science of genetics.

The reasons behind Mendel’s success can be explained as. follows :

Mendel repeated his experiments many times to accumulate a good deal of data for statistical analysis.

He analysed the data by applying principles of Mathematics and Statistics confirmed his conclusions or laws.

Mendel conducted his experiment with extreme care and considered one or two pairs of contrasting character for monohybrid and dihybrid cross respectively.

He considered only distinctive contrasting pairs of characters for his hybridization experiment. So, there was no confusion on the results e.g. Tall plant was 6-7′ whereas dwarf plant is 1-1×1/2.

Hence there is no possibility of any overlapping result of tall and dwarf plant.

By repeated Inbreeding (self-pollination) over the generations, Mendel selected only pure breeding varieties of pea plant for his experiment.

Mendel took enough care to avoid contamination of foreign pollen grain by covering the flowers with paper bags.

Mendel did not select those characters that were present on same chromosome—thus he avoided the complexity of linkage, crossing over etc.

Mendel’s chosen contrasting characteristics in pea plant:

Mendel’s experiment and Mendel’s laws: (How did Mendel derive the laws of heredity from his experiments ?)

Mendel performed monohybrid and dihybrid crosses with seven pairs of contrasting characters and from these experiments, he derived laws of inheritance.

Seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant as studied by mandel

Monohybrid Cross :

Definition: The genetic experiment of cross breeding between two varieties of same species bearing one pair of contrasting traits is known as monohybrid cross.

Experiment and Analysis of results of Monohybrid cross in Pea Plant: Mendel performed several monohybrid experiments taking each of the seven pairs of contrasting
characters separately and obtained similar result.

However, his monohybrid cross on length of pea plant (Tall and Dwarf variety) is very famous.

Experiment :

Mendel first selected pure tall pea plant (6′-7′) and pure dwarf pea plant (1′-1×1/2′) by repeated inbreeding (self pollination) generation after generation. Thus he selected parental generation (P) of pure tall arid pure dwarf plants.

In P generation,Mendel cross pollinated pure tall plants with pure dwarf plants by the process of emasculation, dusting and bagging. In first filial generation (F1) all the plants appeared tall and there was no dwarf plant at all.

All the plants were self pollinated by bagging. In second filial generation (F2); it was observed that out of total number of 1064 pea plants, 787 were tall plants and 277 were dwarf plants.

So, almost 75% (3/4th) of the plants were tall and 25% (1/4th) were dwarf. Therefore, it comes approximately to a ratio of 3 (Tall): 1 (dwarf) which is called as phenotypic ratio.

Phenotypic ratio of F2 generation in a monohybrid cross is also known as monohybrid ratio.

Diagrammatic representation of Mendel's monohybrid cross.

Analysis of results of Mendel’s monohybrid

According to Mendel, tall and dwarf characters in pea plants are transmitted from one generation to the next by the hereditary units known as factors. (Now-a-days, Mendelian
‘factors’ are known as genes).

He postulated that at least two ‘factors’ are responsible for a particular character. (Presently we know that in higher organisms, chromosomes are present in homologous pair— one paternal and one maternal. So, genes are also present in pair.

Hence, at least two genes (one paternal gene and one maternal gene) are responsible for a particular character).

 

Analysis of results of Mendel's monohybrid

He considered T for tall trait and ‘t’ for dwarf trait. So, in tall plants, the factors will be (TT) and that of dwarf plant (tt).

Mendel also assumed that the ‘factors’ are segregated (separated) during gamete formation (since he had no idea about meiosis). (Now, it. is very dear that the gametes are formed by meiosis which is reduction division where the chromosome number is reduced

to half—so number of genes will be aiso reduced to half]. Thus out of two ‘factors’ (genes),only one factor (gene) would be present in each gamete. He also calculated that during
cross pollination, along with transfer of gametes, there were transfer of ‘factors’ between tall and dwarf plants. So gametes are the bearer of factors.

Hence, from tall plant (TT), the gamete would bear T factor (gene) and that of dwarf plant (tt), the gamete would bear ‘t’ factor.

After cross pollination, T and t unite together to form zygote (Tt). So, the genotype of all F1 plants was (Tt) i.e. hybrid tall plant. In spite of presence of t, only T was expressed, so tall trait (T) is dominant over dwarf (t) and dwarf (t) is recessive to tall (T).

During gametogenesis, the F1 hybrid tall plants produce two types of gametes—(T) and (t) by segregation (meiotic separation). So, two types of male gametes from pollen grains and two types of eggs in ovule were formed.

During self pollination of F1 plants, any male gamete could unite with any female gamete at random that would give rise to F2 generation plants which could be shown by checker board (Punnett Square).

Mendel’s conclusion from the results of monohybrid cross :

Concept of two factors—At least two ‘factors’ are responsible for a particular character.

Existence of unit character—’Two- gametes (T) and (t) of two varieties of P generation plants formed the zygote (Tt) from where F1. generation hybrid plants developed. In the hybrid
plants, T and Y ‘factors’ were present side by side and the two ‘factors’ remained perfectly independent from each other without loosing their identities.

So, the factors maintain their purity generation after generation.

Dominance-Out of two contrasting factors—tall (T) and dwarf (t), one unit factor (T) has expressed called dominant and other factor (t) remained hidden called recessive.

Principle of segregation-Dwarf factor (t) was present in P, suppressed in F1 reexpressed in F2. The zygotes of F1 hybrid plant contains two unit character which lie side by side without
mixing.

In F2 generation, the plants produced both parental type (Tall and dwarf) as well as hybrid type. The phenomenon when the hybrid type separates into pure parental and
were hybrid types is called segregation,

Experiment and Analysis of results of Monohybrid cross in Animal (Guineapig):

Many geneticists performed monohybrid cross with animals and obtained resuit like that of Mendel.

Experiment:

When pure (homozygous) black haired guineapigs were crossed artificially with pure (homozygous) white haired guineapigs, all the F1 hybrid guineapigs appeared black haired.

The F2 guineapigs (male and female) were intercrossed.

In F2 generation, the ratio of the offsprings were 3 (Black) : 1 (White).

 

Experiment and Analysis of results of Monohybrid cross in Animal (Guineapig)

Analysis of the result :

In P generation, pure black haired guineapig was (BB) and that of white haired (bb).

During gametogenesis, pure black guineapig and pure white guineapig produced (B) and (b) gamete respectively.

In F1 generation, the genotype of hybrid black guineapig, was (Bb). In spite of presence of two contrasting genes of ‘B’ and ‘b’, the F1 animals appeared black which signified black (B) is dominant over white (b).

Diagrammatic representation of Monohybrid cross in guineapig

F1 hybrids produced two types of gametes— (B) and (b)

After intercrossing, the ratio of F2 progeny was 3 (Black) : 1 (White).

Hence, it shows that the inheritance of hair colour in animal like guineapig follows similar method of segregation like that of Mendel.

Analysis of the result

Concept of ‘Dominance’ from Mendel’s experiment :

Concept of 'Dominance' from Mendel's experiment

Phenotypic ratio = 3 (Black) : 1 (White)
Genotypic ratio = 1 (Pure tall) TT : 2 (Hybrid tall) Tt : 1 (Pure dwarf) tt
= 1 (TT) : 2 (Tt) : 1 (tt)

Concept of dominance :

In P generation, pure dwarf plant (1 -1×1/2) was present.

In F1 generation, all plants were hybrid tall (Tt) and there was no trace of any draft plant. .

In F2 generation, dwarf reappeared ( 3 tall : 1 dwarf).

The dwarf plants of P generation and F2 generation were exactly same.

In fact the dwarf gene (t) was suppressed in F1 generation by the Tall gene (T). So, T is dominant over ‘t’ gene. Hence T is expressed and ‘t’ is suppressed.

However, in hybrid tall plants (Tt) of F1 generation, t gene was suppressed by ‘V gene but was not destroyed. Moreover, the T and t genes were not mixed up or blended in F1 hybrids but they maintained their individual purity or identity.

That’s why, tt (pure dwarf) plant reappeared in F2 generation. This signifies that dominant gene can suppress the recessive gene but can not destroy the recessive gene.

The genes maintain their purity or potentiality generation after generation (unless it is ‘mutated’). It does not matter whether the gene is expressed or suppressed. A particular genemay be suppressed over the generations but its potentiality remains unchanged.

Dihybrid Cross :

Definition: The genetic experiment of cross breeding between two varieties of same species bearing two pairs of contrasting traits is known as dihybrid cross

diagrammatic representation of mendels dihybrid cross

Experiment and Analysis of results of Dihybrld cross in Pea plant : For dihybrid experiment, Mendel selected two characters-shape of seed and colour of seed (cotyledon).
contrasting traits of shape of seed were round and wrinkled whereas two contrasting traits of colour of seed were yellow and green.

Experiment :

Mendel selected pure round yellow seeded plants and pure wrinkled green seeded Plants by repeated Inbreeding (self pollination) for few generations. Thus he selected parenta
generation (P) of pure round yellow and pure wrinkled green plants.

In P generation, Mendel cross pollinated pure round yellow seeded plants with pure wrinkled green seeded plants by emasculation, dusting and bagging technique.

In F1 generation, all pea plants developed round yellow seeds.

All F1 plants were allowed self pollination.

In F2 generation, it was observed that out of 556 plants produced, 315 were Round yellow, 108 Round green, 101 Wrinkled yellow and 32 were Wrinkled green i.e. 9/16 Round
yellow,3/16 Round green, 3/16 Wrinkled yellow and 1/16 Wrinkled green.

So, the phenotypic ratio was 9:3:3: 1. Phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny in a dihybrid cross is also known as dihybrid ratio.

 

dihybrid ratio

Analysis Of results of Mendel’s Dihybrid Cross :

In P generation pure round yellow seeded plants were crossed with pure wrinkled green seeded plants. In F1 generation, all offsprings were round yellow which signifies seed is dominant trait over wrinkled seed and yellow colour of cotyledon is dominant green colour of cotyledon.

If we consider, R as round gene (dominant) and r as wrinkled gene (recessive) Y as yellow gene (dominant) and y as green gene (recessive), then in P generation, the genotype
of pure round yellow plant will be RRYY and the genotype of green wrinkled plant, will be rryy.

From pure round yellow (RRYY) plant, the gamete was (RY) and that of pure wrinkled green (rryy) plant, the gamete was (ry).

After fertilization of (RY) and )ry) gametes, the hybrid rouna yellow plants were formed with the genotype RrYy in F1 generation.

The F1 hybrid round yellow plants (RrYy) produced four types of gametes—RY, Ry, rY, ry.

During self pollinadon of F1 plnts,these dour types of male gemetesmunited with form types of female gametes at random. The possible combination of those gemetes to form
zygotes is shown in the checker board or punnett square.

 

Analysis of results of Mendel's Dihybrid Cross

Round yellow = 9, Round green = 3, Wrinkled yellow = 3 and Wrinkled green = 1 Therefore the phenotypic ratio = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Mendel’s conclusion from the results of dihybrid

Mendel concluded that the ‘factors’ are separated as well as assorted randomly and independently of each other during gamete formation.

He also concluded that during gametic union (fertilization) any gamete can unite with any other gamete irrespective to its dominance or recessiveness. Since the gametes are
the “bearer of factors” so random union of gametes means random assortment (union) of ‘factors’ or genes.

Thus during gametic union any gene/factor (whether dominant or recessive) can combine independently with any other gene/factor.

Experiment and Analysis of results of Dihybrid cross in Animal (Guineapig).

Experiment :

For dihybrid cross in guineapig, two pairs of contrasting characters were were— hair colour (black or white) and texture of hair (rough or smooth).

In P generation, pure black colour and rough hair variety of guineapig was cross pure white colour and smooth hair variety of guineapig.

In F1 generation, all offsprings appeared with black rough hair.

F1 male and female guineapigs were intercrossed.

Diagrammatic representation of dihybrid cross with Guineapig

In F2 generation, the offspring were in the ratio of 9 (black rough) : 3 (block smooth):3(white rough): 1 (white smooth).

 

 

the offspring ratio

Analysis of results of Dihybrid Cross In Guineapig :

If we consider gene for black hair ‘B’, white hair ‘b’ rough hair ‘R’ and smooth hair r, then in P1 generation, the genotype of pure black rough hair guineapig will be BBRR and that of white smooth hair will be bbrr.

P generation pure Black rough hair guineapig (BBRR) produces’gamete (Bf)) whereas pure white smooth hair guineapig (bbrr) produces gamete (br). These gametes fertilize to give birth to F1 hybrids!

In F1 generation, the hybrid black rough hair guineapig had the genotype BbRr. In spite of presence of white and smooth gene, all offsprings appeared black rough hair which signified black (B) is dominant over white (b) and rough (R) is dominant over smooth (r).

Analysis of results of Dihybrid Cross In Guineapig

The F1 hybrids (BbRr) produced gametes when Bb and Rr alleles were segregated and assorted independently to produce four types of gametes—BR, Br, bR and br. Thus four types
of male gametes and same four types of female gametes are produced.

These gametes fertilise at random to produce 16 different types of zygotes.

The phenotypic ratio of these zygotes were 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 which can be represented in checker board as follows:

Phenotypic ratio : 9 (Black Rough) : 3 (Black Smooth) : 3 (White Rough) : 1 (White Smooth).

Mendel’s Law :

From monohybrid cross, Mendel formulated his first law known as Law of Segregation.

1st Law of Mendel: Law of Segregation—Factors for contrasting character in a zygote do not blend or contaminate with each other but segregate and pass into different gametes and offsprings randomly.

From dihybrid cross, Mendel formulated his second law known as Law of Independent Assortment.

2nd Law of Mendel: Law of Independent Assortment— Two or more contrasting pairs of factors (characters) are assorted independently and may recombine randomly in all possible combinations governed by chance alone.

Deviation of Mendel’s Laws of Heredity :

In Mendel’s monohybrid cross, tall (T) trait was completely dominant over dwarf (t) trait in pea plant. That’s why, in F1 hybrid tail plants (Tt), T was fully expressed and ‘t’ was totally
suppressed. This is known as complete dominance.

After Mendel, long time passed away. Many scientist made their research work with various plants and animals. Lot of new genetic phenomenon have been discovered. One such
interesting discovery is incomplete dominance.

Definition: In a heterozygous organism, out of contrasting dominant and recessive allele, if the dominant gene cannot express its dominant phenotype completely but an intermediate
or mixed phenotype between dominant and recessive gene is expressed, the phenomenon is known as incomplete dominance or partial dominance or semidominance.

Experiment:

Correns reported incomplete dominance in case of flowers of Four O’ clock plant (Mirabilis jalapa).

In P generation, a pure red flowered plant was cross pollinated with pure white flowered plant.

In F1 generation, all hybrid plants produced pink flowers.

Diagrammatic representation of imcomplete dominance in 4'0 clock plant

All F1 plants were self pollinated.

In F1 generation, 25% plants produced red flowers, 50% pink flowers and 25% white flowers. Phenotypic ratio = 1 (Red) : 2 (Pink): 1 (White).

Analysis of result :

In P generation, Pure red flowered plant is (RR) and pure white flowered plant was (rr).

During gametogenesis by meiosis, the plant produced (R) and (r) gametes respectively.

After cross pollination of P plants, (R) and (r) unite together to form (Rr) zygote that developed into F1 plants producing pinkflowers.

When the F2 hybrid pink flowered plants were self pollinated, it produced F2 plants in the ratio of 1 (red) : 2 ( pink) : 1 (white).

The genotypic ratio was 1 (RR): 2 (Rr): 1 (rr)

Incomplete dominance (Flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa)

Phenotypic end genotypic ratio are samo In F2 generation,

In F1( hybrids, rod gene (R) did not destroy white gene (r), That’s why, they reappeared In F2 Ronomtion as pure red (RR) and pure white (rr),

In fact, In this example of Mlrabllls Jalapa, red gone Is Incompletely dominant over white gene. So, both red and white genes give rise to an Intermediate pink coloured flowers
in hybrid condition.

Phenotypic end genotypic ratio are samo

Sex determination in man :

Definition: The mechanism by which the male and female individuals of a species are

differentiated is known as sex determination. In man, mechanism of sex determination is known as XX-XY mechanism.

In human {Homo sapiens), the chromosome number is 2n = 46. There are 22 pairs autosome and 1 pair sex chromosome.

Sex chromosomes determine sex. In human female, the sex chromosomes (allosome) are homologous (XX) but in human male, the sex chromosomes are nonhomologous (XY).

Sex determination in man

Female (44A + XX) Is homogametic and produces only one type of ovum by meiosis (during oogenesis) (22A + X). (ÿ stands for autosome and ’X for allosome).

Male (44A + XY) is heterogametic and produces two different types of sperm by meiosis (during spermatogenesis) – (22A + X) and (22A + Y). (‘A’ for autosome and X, Y designate
allosome). X containing sperm is known as gynosperm and Y containing sperm is known as androsperm.

During fertilization between sperm and ovum, any type of sperm may fertilize the ovum. Whether gynosperm (22A + X) or androsperm (22A + Y) would fertilize the ovum-is purely
a matter of chance. Nothing can be predicted earlier.

The principle of sex determination in man is that presence of Y in the zygote indicates maleness whereas absence of Y in zygote indicates femaleness.

If gynosperm (22A + X) fertilizes the ovum (22A + X), the zygote would be (44A + XX) which gives birth to a female baby. On the contrary, if androsperm (22A + Y) fertilizes the
ovum (22A + X), the zygote would be (44A + XY) which gives birth to a male baby.

So, whether a male baby (son) or a female baby (daughter) will be born (Sex determination of the baby), depends completely on father and never on the mother (in no way).

Sex determination of the baby

Gender determination by checker board in man

Some Common Genetic Diseases (What are the causes of genetic diseases?)

Common genetic diseases in population:

Many genetic diseases in man have been discovered. These are mainly because of various mutant genes that are located either in the autosome (autosomal gene) or in the allosome
/sex chromosome (sex linked gene).

If the sex-linked gene is present in the X-chrornosome or Y-chromosome, it may be called as X-linked gene or Y-Iinked gene respectively

Thalassemia : it is a type of haemolytic anaemia caused by abnormal synthesis of faulty haemoglobin. It was discovered by American doctor Cooley (1925).

Cause :

  1. Thalassemia is a genetic disorder caused by autosomal recessive gene.
  2. The defects occur due to mutation of genes located in the chromosome 16 and chromosome 11.
  3. The mutations cause defective synthesis of a globin chain or (3 globin chain of haemoglobin.
  4. Thalassemia is generally of three types—Alpha, Beta and Delta. (Beta thalassemia is called cooley’s anaemia)

Symptoms :

  1. Synthesis of less haemoglobin or formation of abnormal haemoglobin.
  2. Premature destruction of RBC and development of anaemia.
  3. Expansion of bone narrow and heart problem.
  4. Enlargement of liver—hepatomegaly.
  5. Enlargement of spleen—Splenomegaly and increased risk of infection.
  6. Skeletal deformation and iron overload.
  7. Retardation of body growth.
  8. Affected fetus may die inside mother’s uterus or the baby may die soon after birth (jaundice and erythroblastosis).

Haemophilia: It is a clinical condition in which the ability of blood clotting of a person is severely reduced, causing the sufferer to bleed severely even from a slight injury. It is also known as bleeder’s disease. This was first discovered by an American doctor John Otto (1803).

Cause :

Haemophilia is caused due to presence of a recessive sex-linked gene h, located on X-chromosome.

There are two types of haemophilia—Haemophilia A and Haemophilia B, caused by two mutant genes present on the X-chromosome in man with a distinct gap.

Haemophilia A (Royal disease) is caused due to deficiency of a protein for blood clotting known as “Factor 8” or “Antihaemophilic factor” (AHF). About 80% Haemophilia are of this
type.

Haemophilia B (Christmas disease) is caused due to deficiency of another blood clotting protein known as “Factor 9” or Plasma thromboplastin. About 20% Haemophilia are of this
type. It is called Christmas disease according to the name of first patient—Stephen Christmas.

The disease (Haemophilia A) was first discovered in Queen Victoria. Probably the gene was inherited to her from parents or the mutation was developed in herself.

Symptoms :

For normal blood clotting, both factor 8 and 9 are needed. Defect or deficiency of anyone factor will impair blood clotting. So blood does not clot within 3-8 minutes but it takes hours.
As a result, there will be continuous bleeding and the patient may die.

There is no permanent cure of this genetic disease but it may be partly managed by blood transfusion.

Females may be ‘carrier’ with one dominant normal gene and one recessive ‘h’ gene of haemophilia.

Haemophilia is found more in males than in females.

Colour blindness: It is the defective colour vision when someone can not distinguish between certain colours, usually between green and red, and occasionally blue due to absence
or reduced amount of visual pigments.

First scientific paper about colour blindness was wtitten by John Dalton in 1793. Dalton himself was red-green colour blind. That’s why red-green colour blindness is sometimes called as Daltonism.

Cause :

The gene for normal vision is dominant. Red-green colour blindness is caused by recessive gene located on X-chromosome (sex-linked gene) in man.

The mutant gene for red blindness is protan and the mutant gene for green blindness is deutan. They are located at different locus of X-chromosome

Symptoms :

  1. Colour blindness is inheritable disease of X-linked recessive gene.
  2. The cone cells of eye in these persons fail to distinguish red and.green colour
  3. Besides the problem of colour vision, these colourblind persons will have otherwise normal vision for reading, writing etc,
  4. Colour blindness Is more common In males than In females because males have one X and other Y sex chromosome whereas In human female there are two X-chromosomes.

Thalassemia as an autosomal chromosomal disorder and genetic counselling:

Thalassemia is a type of genetic disorder where haemoglobin Is produced In decreased amounts. The decreased amount of haemoglobin In the blood causes anaemia, which reduces
oxygen carrying capacity of blood. RBC becomes fragile and breaks down easily (haemolysis).

To compensate loss of RBC, frequent blood transfusion is done.

All the above conditions may result into Iron overload, which means excess Iron in the body. Excess iron in vital organs Increases the risk for liver disease (cirrhosis, cancer), heart
attack, diabetes mellltus, osteoarthritis, osteoporosis as Well as problem of endocrine system like hypothyroidism, defective gonads etc.

Iron overload may be inherited or it may be acquired by numerous blood transfusion, iron injection etc. When a person is receiving blood transfusion on a regular basis, iron may build
up to toxic level in the body.

Role of genetic counselling In prevention of thalassemia :

Those persons who contain gene for thalassemia in recessive condition are called carriers or minors. They have normal dominant gene. So, they will not suffer from any problem
of thalassemia.

If both father and mother are carrier, then in F1 generation, probability of thalassemia may be 25%.

Role of genetic counselling In prevention of thalassemia

Before marriage of any two man and woman, family history must be studied for genetic counselling to find out any thalassemia carrier in the proposed male and female or their
relatives, parents etc. Two thalassemia carrier should not get married.

There are method of blood test for detection “haemoglobin disorders” which can be done before marriage to find thalassemia carrier (thalassemia minor). These premarital precautions
will help to prevent the Inheritance of thalassemia major (homozygous).

Thus birth of thalassemia babies can be checked that would justify—’prevention Is better than cure’.